Legal Bites presents the CLAT PG Mock Legal Practice Questions – March 2026, carefully designed to sharpen your preparation strategy and elevate your legal aptitude for the upcoming examination. In today’s highly competitive landscape, where question patterns are becoming increasingly dynamic and judgment-centric, consistent practice with well-curated, concept-driven questions is indispensable.
While preparing this mock test, we have closely aligned with the latest CLAT PG 2026 pattern, ensuring comprehensive coverage of all subjects prescribed in the syllabus. The paper is thoughtfully structured to mirror the actual CLAT PG examination, enabling aspirants to gain familiarity with the exam format, question styles, and difficulty level. Regular practice with these questions will not only strengthen conceptual understanding but also improve speed, accuracy, and exam temperament.
This mock test further functions as a reliable self-assessment tool, allowing candidates to evaluate their performance, identify areas of improvement, and refine their preparation in a systematic manner.
All case-based questions included in this mock are sourced from significant judgments of the Supreme Court and various High Courts, primarily delivered in February 2026, ensuring relevance, precision, and alignment with the jurisprudence-focused nature of the CLAT PG examination.
Attempt the mock questions below and take a confident step toward securing admission to your dream law school with Legal Bites.
CLAT PG Mock Legal Practice Questions
March 2026
No. of questions: 120
I. John Austin is known as the father of this school of jurisprudence and his positive law and command theory was and still is the basis of many theories that have been developed by other jurists and thinkers over time. In his book ‘The Province of Jurisprudence Determined’ he defines law as “a rule laid down for the guidance of an intelligent being by an intelligent being having power over him”. This supports the command theory where law can be defined as the command of the sovereign backed by some kind of sanction. This essentially means there is a superior political authority which is vested with the power to make their orders and commands the basis of human behaviour and binding on all the citizens.
Austin propounded the positive law theory which talks about how this particular individual law should be separated and not be influenced by positive morality and ethics. He also mentions the importance of considering law as it is and not law as it ought to be. The sovereign theory of law developed by Austin says that there are three elements which constitute to make the law i.e. Law = Command + Sovereign + Sanction.
Command refers to the orders and rules which had be laid down by the superior authority and was bound to be followed by all the inferior people under the control of this authority. Commands can be of two types: general and particular where general commands are for the society as a whole and particular commands are for a specific set or group of people. Sovereign here refers to any individual or group of individuals who have the political authority
to influence the behaviour and acts of the majority. They act as a source of law and are not bound by commands of authority higher than them. Sanction is any type of physical force which is used in the effective administration of justice. This follows the theory of punishment where if the command of the sovereign is not followed and law is violated, as a result there will be some kind of consequence imposed on the perpetrator.
Austin’s theory is often criticised on the grounds that it is repetitive and caused a lot of confusion in the minds of people. Hart although being part of this school said that the division between law and morality is incorrect as in real life both them are interlinked and have a connection when they are applied. His theory rests on the fact that all the people are bound to follow the law made by the authorities as they fear punishment such as fine or imprisonment, in reality this might be the case only for some people and it is better not to generalise. Custom’s which are the backbone and the roots of various statutes such as Hindu Marriage Act or Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Act, is ignored by Austin in his experiment and theory about law.
[Extracted from Aditi Pandey, “Analytical School and Its Relevance in the Modern World,” Indian Journal of Integrated Research in Law, Volume III, Issue II (ISSN: 2583-0538)].
1. According to John Austin, law is best understood as:
A. A system of moral obligations
B. A command of the sovereign backed by sanction
C. A set of customs recognised by society
D. A reflection of social consciousness
Answer: B
2. H. L. A. Hart criticised Austin by arguing that:
A. Law must always be based on religion
B. Law and morality are completely separate
C. Law and morality are interconnected in practice
D. Sanctions are unnecessary in law
Answer: C
3. Which of the following statements best describes ‘command’ in Austin’s theory?
A. Suggestions made by the legislature
B. Moral obligations imposed by society
C. Judicial precedents binding courts
D. Orders laid down by a superior authority to be obeyed
Answer: C
4. Which of the following correctly represents Austin’s formulation of law?
A. Law = Rights + Duties + Justice
B. Law = Command + Sovereign + Sanction
C. Law = Morality + Ethics + Justice
D. Law = Custom + Precedent + Equity
Answer: B
5. In Austin’s theory, ‘sanction’ implies:
A. Social approval for legal rules
B. Moral justification of law
C. Physical force or penalty for disobedience
D. Judicial interpretation of statutes
Answer: C
II. The United Nations was established by the Charter of the United Nations and Statute of the International Court of Justice.
The Charter was signed on 26 June 1945 by the representatives of 50 countries; Poland signed on 15 October 1945. There were 51 Founding Members in 1945. The founding members of the United Nations are the countries that were invited to participate in the 1945 San Francisco Conference at which the UN Charter and Statute of the ICJ was adopted. Participation was determined by virtue of having signed or adhered to the Declaration by United Nations (1942) or as approved at the Conference.
In accordance with Article 110, the Charter entered into force on 24 October 1945, after ratification by the five permanent members of the Security Council and a majority of the other countries. Twenty-two countries subsequently deposited their instruments of ratification. The table below reflects the pattern of ratification: first the five permanent members, then the other countries that ratified by 24 October, and then the remaining countries.
Since 1945, some of the Founding Members have changed their names, others have been dissolved and new states have succeeded them.
6. The United Nations was formally established by which legal instruments?
A. UN Charter and Universal Declaration of Human Rights
B. UN Charter and Statute of the International Court of Justice
C. Geneva Conventions and UN Charter
D. Covenant of League of Nations
Answer: B
7. The UN Charter was signed on:
A. 24 October 1945
B. 15 October 1945
C. 26 June 1945
D. 1 January 1942
Answer: C
8. Which country signed the UN Charter later than the others?
A. France
B. Poland
C. USSR
D. China
Answer: B
9. The San Francisco Conference is significant because:
A. It adopted the Universal Declaration of Human Rights
B. It marked the dissolution of the League of Nations
C. It adopted the UN Charter and Statute of the ICJ
D. It established the Security Council
Answer: C
10. Which of the following statements best reflects the legal significance of Article 110 of the UN Charter?
A. It defines the powers of the Security Council
B. It governs the admission of new members
C. It establishes the International Court of Justice
D. It lays down conditions for the Charter’s entry into force
Answer: D
III. Extradition under international law refers to the process by which one State (territorial State) surrenders an accused person to another State (requesting State) for trial or punishment. It is based primarily on treaties and national laws, as international law does not independently grant a right to extradition without such agreements. The principle serves key objectives such as preventing criminals from escaping justice, promoting international cooperation, and ensuring fair trials. The concept is rooted in the maxim aut dedere aut punire, either extradite or punish, highlighting a State’s obligation to act against offenders.
The law of extradition operates through several conditions and principles, including the requirement of an extradition treaty, the doctrine of double criminality, and the rule of speciality (trial only for the offence extradited). Political offenders are generally not extradited, though exceptions exist for serious international crimes. Additional safeguards include the need for prima facie evidence, protection against time-barred offences, and consideration of human rights, especially in cases involving the death penalty. Ultimately, extradition balances State sovereignty with the need to combat cross-border crime while ensuring justice and fairness.
[Summary of the article titled, “Extradition under International Law,” by A. Suganthini, International Journal of Psychosocial Rehabilitation, Vol. 24, Issue 06 (2020), ISSN 1475-7192]
11. The term ‘extradition’ primarily refers to:
A. Deportation of illegal immigrants
B. Transfer of prisoners after conviction
C. Surrender of an accused by one State to another for trial
D. Grant of asylum to refugees
Answer: C
12. The maxim aut dedere aut punire implies:
A. Punish only in the requesting State
B. Either prosecute or extradite the offender
C. No State has jurisdiction over foreign criminals
D. Extradition is optional
Answer: B
13. Extradition reflects a balance between:
A. National economy and trade
B. State sovereignty and international justice
C. Judiciary and legislature
D. Civil and criminal law
Answer: B
14. In Abu Salem Abdul Qayoom Ansari v. State of Maharashtra, the Supreme Court held that the Doctrine of Specialty is linked with:
A. Natural justice and equity
B. Federalism and separation of powers
C. Territorial jurisdiction and sovereignty
D. Double criminality and reciprocity
Answer: D
15. Nirav Modi is accused in connection with which major scam?
A. Punjab National Bank (PNB) Scam
B. 2G Spectrum Scam
C. Satyam Scam
D. Coal Allocation Scam
Answer: A
IV. Under Article 39 of the UN Charter, the Security Council has the authority to define a threat to international peace, a breach of peace, or an act of aggression, and to propose or decide what should be done to maintain or restore international peace. Provisional measures are dealt with in Article 40, whilst non-forcible penalties, such as radio and other modes of communication, as well as severance of diplomatic relations, are dealt with in Article 41. Article 42 authorises military reprisal, such as “demonstrations, blockades, and other acts by United Nations Members’ air, sea, or land forces.” Articles 45-47 called for the establishment of military staff committee to oversee the military “advise and assist the Security Council on all questions relating to the Security Council’s military requirements for the maintenance of international peace and security,” and also Council’s military requirements for the maintenance of international peace and security.” Members of the United Nations were supposed to provide a complete or partial interruption of economic relations, as well as rail, sea, air, postal, and telegraphic services, as well as provide the Security Council with armed forces, assistance, and facilities, in accordance with a special agreement or agreements, in order to maintain international peace and security. The Security Council has the authority to use regional agreements in enforcement measures that fall under its purview. According to Article 53 of Chapter VIII, which deals with regional arrangements and the Security Council. Regional agreements, on the other hand, cannot launch enforcement operations without the Security Council’s permission.
[Extracted from U. S. Duguri, M. A. Salleh, and I. Hassan, The Structure of United Nations and Its Mandate: A Review, Quantum Journal of Social Sciences and Humanities, Vol. 3, Issue 1 (2022), eISSN 2716-6481]
16. Under the UN Charter, which Article empowers the Security Council to determine threats to peace?
A. Article 38
B. Article 39
C. Article 40
D. Article 42
Answer: B
17. Provisional measures to prevent aggravation of disputes are dealt with under:
A. Article 40
B. Article 39
C. Article 41
D. Article 42
Answer: A
18. Regional organisations can undertake enforcement action:
A. Without any approval
B. Only with the approval of the General Assembly
C. Only with the authorisation of the Security Council
D. At their own discretion
Answer: C
19. The primary function of the Military Staff Committee is to:
A. Resolve diplomatic disputes
B. Supervise UN General Assembly
C. Advise and assist the Security Council on military matters
D. Conduct international trials
Answer: C
20. The Military Staff Committee is provided under which Articles of the UN Charter?
A. Articles 39–41
B. Articles 42–44
C. Articles 50–52
D. Articles 45–47
Answer: D
V. What is evident from the facts of the case is that the University from which the appellants had studied had been set up under the 2002 Act enacted by the Chhattisgarh State Legislature. The aforesaid Act was declared to be ultra vires by this Court vide order dated 11.02.2005. Till such time, the students had been studying and passing out. At the time of declaration of the said Act to be ultra vires, this Court had protected the students who were still studying. They were directed to be transferred to alternative institutions recognized by the State. Considering the aforesaid fact and also that in the factual situation in hand, the appellants cannot be said to be at fault as they had studied in the University, which has been set up under the 2002 Act enacted by the State Legislature. Hence, they should not be deprived of the benefits of the degree obtained by them while studying in the University. It is not the case of the State that the University in which the appellants studied was bogus or no study was actually imparted.
[This extract is taken from Priyanka Kumari & Ors. v. State of Bihar & Ors. (2026 INSC 167)]
21. Assertion (A): The appellants were allowed to retain their degrees.
Reason (R): The University was established under a valid law at all times.
A. Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not correct explanation
C. A is true, R is false
D. A is false, R is true
Answer: C
22. What was the legal status of the 2002 Act as declared by the Court?
A. Valid but requiring amendment
B. Voidable at the option of the State
C. Ultra vires
D. Suspended temporarily
Answer: C
23. If the Court had invalidated the degrees despite no fault of the students, it would most likely violate:
A. Article 14
B. Article 21
C. Article 19(1)(a)
D. Article 32
Answer: A
24. The Supreme Court, in the present judgment, referred to which earlier decision while declaring the 2002 Act ultra vires?
A. Prof. Yash Pal v. State of Chhattisgarh
B. Priyanka Kumari & Ors. v. State of Bihar & Ors.
C. Anil Bhimraj Purane v. Union of India
D. State of Bihar v. Librarians Association
Answer: A
25. The 2002 Act was declared ultra vires by the Court on:
A. 26.01.2002
B. 15.08.2004
C. 01.01.2006
D. 11.02.2005
Answer: D
VI. The High Court further examined the Appellant’s reliance on the alleged independent income of Sengan (D1). It accepted that Sengan had engaged in various jobs over his lifetime, including service and contractual work. However, it correctly rejected the simplistic assumption that the mere existence of some independent earnings would automatically negate the contribution of joint family income. The High Court observed that Hindu law does not require other coparceners to establish with precision the exact source of funds for each acquisition made by the Karta. Where acquisitions are made during the subsistence of the joint family, and where ancestral properties yielding income are shown to exist, properties acquired in the name of the Karta are ordinarily regarded as joint family properties unless the contrary is proved.
[Extracted from Dorairaj v. Doraisamy (Dead) Through LRs & Ors. (2026 INSC 126)]
26. Who can be the Karta of a Hindu Joint Family?
A. Only the eldest male coparcener
B. Any coparcener, including a female coparcener
C. Only a person appointed by court
D. Only the father
Answer: B
27. A son becomes a coparcener:
A. By birth
B. On attaining majority
C. After father’s death
D. By court declaration
Answer: A
28. A Karta derives his powers primarily from:
A. Statute
B. Contract
C. Status in the family
D. Court order
Answer: C
29. The existence of “joint family nucleus” implies:
A. Family disputes
B. Presence of ancestral property capable of generating income
C. Existence of family debts
D. Only movable property in the family
Answer: B
30. Under Hindu law, coparceners are NOT required to:
A. Prove existence of joint family
B. Challenge alienation
C. Prove existence of ancestral property
D. Prove exact source of funds for each acquisition
Answer: D
VII. Trial courts conducting criminal proceedings are under a duty to ensure that an accused person is made aware of the right to legal representation, including the availability of free legal aid where the accused lacks the means to engage counsel. Before the examination of witnesses begins, the court must place on record that such an offer was made, note the response of the accused, and document the steps taken pursuant to that response in its order.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from Reginamary Chellamani v. State (Rep. by Superintendent of Customs) (2026 INSC 127)]
31. Which provision of the Constitution of India specifically directs the State to provide free legal aid?
A. Article 32
B. Article 39A
C. Article 226
D. Article 20
Answer: B
32. At what stage must the trial court inform the accused of their right to legal representation?
A. After conviction
B. Before framing of charges
C. Before examination of witnesses
D. After appeal
Answer: C
33. The examination of witnesses generally follows which sequence?
A. Cross → Chief → Re-examination
B. Cross → Re-examination → Chief
C. Re-examination → Cross → Chief
D. Chief → Cross → Re-examination
Answer: D
34. In sessions trials, discharge of the accused is provided under:
A. Section 239 CrPC / Section 262 BNSS
B. Section 227 CrPC / Section 250 BNSS
C. Section 245 CrPC / Section 268 BNSS
D. Section 251 CrPC / Section 274 BNSS
Answer: B
35. Does a court have the power to alter or add to charges during trial?
A. No, charges once framed cannot be changed
B. Yes, but only with consent of accused
C. Only appellate court can do so
D. Yes, at any time before judgment
Answer: D
VIII. After disposal of the aforementioned writ petition, the concerned Revenue Officer, in continuation of the earlier notice dated 01.04.1968, issued a second notice dated 04.08.1971 requiring the respondent-company to appear for a hearing to determine its entitlement under Section 6(1)(j) of the WBEA Act, 1953. In the said proceedings, being No. 1/1971, the Revenue Officer passed an order on 07.10.1971 holding inter alia that the respondent–company failed to produce any evidence to prove that the company was created exclusively for agricultural purpose or for carrying on business connected directly with agricultural farming, and accordingly it is not entitled to get the benefit under Section 6(1)(j) of the WBEA Act, 1953.
The aforementioned order of the Revenue Officer was challenged by the respondent-company before the High Court by filing a writ petition bearing C.R. No. 3266 (W) of 1971, in which a Civil Rule was issued, and an order directing maintenance of status quo was passed on 02.11.1971.
[Extracted from State of West Bengal & Ors. v. Jai Hind Pvt. Ltd., 2026 INSC 132]
36. The Revenue Officer denied benefit under Section 6(1)(j) because:
A. No evidence of agricultural purpose was produced
B. The company was not registered
C. The land was urban
D. The petition was time-barred
Answer: A
37. Under company law, a company must act within:
A. Judicial precedents
B. Government orders
C. Objects clause of its memorandum
D. Shareholder resolutions only
Answer: C
38. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a company?
A. Perpetual succession
B. Separate legal entity
C. Limited liability
D. Temporary existence
Answer: D
39. Which document would be most relevant to determine whether the company was formed for agricultural purposes?
A. Articles of Association
B. Memorandum of Association
C. Prospectus
D. Share certificate
Answer: B
40. The scrutiny by the Revenue Officer into the company’s true purpose essentially involves:
A. Doctrine of lifting the corporate veil
B. Doctrine of indoor management
C. Doctrine of constructive notice
D. Doctrine of agency
Answer: A
IX. Placing reliance on Section 10(16) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 (hereinafter referred to as the “Tax Act”), learned counsel contended that scholarships granted to meet the cost of education are expressly excluded from the computation of total income and are, therefore, exempt from income tax. It was submitted that the stipend received by the petitioner squarely falls within the ambit of the said provision and ought not to have been considered while determining the family income ceiling for eligibility under the EWS category.
It was further argued that the Tribunal committed a manifest error in placing undue reliance on the deduction of tax at source and the issuance of Form 16 by Respondent No. 1 as determinative of the nature of the payment. Learned counsel submitted that the tax treatment adopted by the employer, whether correct or otherwise, cannot override the true and intrinsic character of the payment. Procedural compliance under the Tax Act, it was contended, cannot be treated as conclusive proof of a salaried relationship or employment status.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from Dr. Bahubali N. Shetti v. All India Institute of Medical Sciences & Anr., W.P.(C) No.1339/2026]
41. Section 10(16) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 primarily provides for:
A. Taxability of stipends as salary
B. Exemption of scholarships from total income
C. Deduction of TDS on educational grants
D. Taxation of EWS benefits
Answer: B
42. The core argument of the petitioner regarding the stipend was that it:
A. Was taxable as salary income
B. Should be included in family income for EWS eligibility
C. Fell within the scope of scholarship exemption under Section 10(16)
D. Was wrongly paid by the employer
Answer: C
43. According to the petitioner, the stipend should not be considered for determining:
A. Income tax liability
B. Salary structure
C. Family income ceiling under EWS category
D. Employer’s tax obligations
Answer: C
44. Issuance of Form 16 generally indicates:
A. Salary income and TDS deduction
B. Capital gains
C. Scholarship grant
D. Agricultural income
Answer: A
45. The Tribunal relied upon which factors to determine the nature of payment?
A. Purpose of stipend
B. Educational qualification
C. TDS deduction and Form 16
D. University certification
Answer: C
X. From the material on record, it is apparent that petitioner shifted from Green Park to alternate accommodation at Safdarjung, owned by respondent No. 1. Such shifting is not shown to be compelled by violence or coercion, inasmuch as, petitioner herself in her complaint states that she had shifted there for the purpose of treatment. If the shifting was only temporary, she would not have affixed the name plate showing her name outside property No. B-5/204, Safdarjung Enclave. These factors collectively indicate conscious place of residence, not a temporary displacement. The relief under Section 19 is discretionary and equitable. The DV Act balances the rights of the aggrieved woman with the rights of other occupants and owners. Compelling the restoration in the present case would disturb the settled possession of the current occupants and convert a protective statute into a rule for re-entry to any past residence and thus would amount to travelling beyond the legislative intent.
[Extracted from Reena Grover v. Ramesh Grover and Others, CRL.M.C. 8722/2024]
46. The Court treated the residence at Safdarjung as:
A. Temporary shelter
B. Forced relocation
C. Conscious place of residence
D. Illegal possession
Answer: C
47. The doctrine of part performance protects:
A. Ownership rights
B. Possession rights
C. Lease rights
D. Mortgage rights
Answer: B
48. Which of the following is a mandatory condition for invoking protection under Section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
A. Completion of transfer
B. Willingness of the transferee to perform his part of the contract
C. Registration of the agreement
D. Payment of stamp duty
Answer: B
49. The absence of coercion indicates that the petitioner’s possession was:
A. Illegal
B. Forced
C. Voluntary
D. Adverse
Answer: C
50. The facts indicate that the petitioner’s status at Safdarjung was closest to:
A. Permissive Occupant
B. Mortgagee
C. Owner
D. Lessee
Answer: A
XI. The sharp rise in solid waste is closely tied to the changing economic structure of the country. Increased reliance on packaged products, the gradual shift from a repair-oriented mindset to a throwaway culture, and the rapid expansion of e-commerce and home delivery services have collectively led to a substantial increase in packaging waste.
The failure to effectively manage municipal solid waste has serious implications not only for public health but also for economic stability. Although Parliament, after thorough deliberation, has framed comprehensive rules such as the MSW/SWM Rules, their implementation remains uneven and inadequate. The gap lies not in the legislative framework, but in its execution. While the legislature has fulfilled its role, the responsibility now rests with the executive authorities and citizens to ensure strict compliance with the prescribed norms and to avoid delays or lapses in enforcement.
Furthermore, environmental laws treat offences relating to improper solid waste management as penal in nature, attracting punishments for non-compliance. In this context, the proposal to deploy mobile courts is being considered as a mechanism to address violations promptly and ensure real-time enforcement of the law.
…………The Ministry of Education, along with State Education Departments, must ensure proper integration of solid waste management into school education.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from Bhopal Municipal Corporation v. Dr. Subhash C. Pandey & Ors., Civil Appeal No.6174 of 2023]
51. The passage suggests that the major challenge in solid waste management in India is:
A. Lack of environmental legislation
B. Judicial inaction
C. Ineffective implementation of existing rules
D. Absence of public awareness
Answer: C
52. The concept of ‘Intergenerational Equity’ relates to:
A. Equality among present citizens
B. Rights of future generations to environmental resources
C. Industrial development policies
D. Property rights
Answer: B
53. Which authority is mandated to ensure that solid waste management is included in school curricula?
A. Ministry of Environment
B. Ministry of Education and State Education Departments
C. Judiciary
D. Municipal Bodies
Answer: B
54. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 empowers the State Government to:
A. Declare air pollution control areas
B. Frame constitutional amendments
C. Regulate wildlife sanctuaries
D. Impose income tax
Answer: A
55. In Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar (1991), the Supreme Court held that the right to pollution-free air and water is part of:
A. Article 14
B. Article 19
C. Article 32
D. Article 21
Answer: D
XII. In our considered opinion, in light of the facts and circumstances of the case, the High Court erred in remanding the matter to the Tribunal for fresh adjudication on the basis of a single issue alone. Even assuming that the Secretary of the first respondent was competent to initiate proceedings against the appellant by issuing a charge-sheet, the High Court ought to have examined other crucial aspects, including whether the inquiry was vitiated by a breach of the principles of natural justice, as alleged, and whether the findings of the Tribunal were otherwise sustainable.
It is a well-settled principle of law that where multiple issues arise for determination in a case, the Court is expected to address each of them with proper reasoning. A decision confined to only one decisive point, without dealing with the remaining issues, falls short of judicial propriety and completeness.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from Hemlata Eknath Pise v. Shubham Bahu-uddeshiya Sanstha Waddhamna & Ors. (2026 INSC 147)]
56. The principle of Natural Justice includes:
A. Doctrine of eclipse
B. Audi alteram partem
C. Doctrine of severability
D. Doctrine of pith and substance
Answer: B
57. The writ of Mandamus is issued to:
A. Quash an order
B. Prevent an authority from acting
C. Command a public authority to perform its duty
D. Transfer a case
Answer: C
58. Which of the following is NOT a type of bias?
A. Personal bias
B. Pecuniary bias
C. Subject-matter bias
D. Legislative bias
Answer: D
59. “Reasoned decision” helps in:
A. Reducing workload
B. Ensuring transparency and accountability
C. Increasing litigation
D. Avoiding judicial review
Answer: B
60. Which case held that even administrative decisions must follow natural justice?
A. A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India
B. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
D. ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla
Answer: A
XIII. The Central Civil Services (Pension) Rules, 1972 comprehensively regulate the retirement benefits payable to government employees, including gratuity. However, the gratuity amount calculated under these rules was found to be lower than that payable under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972.
This disparity prompted an employee of Heavy Water Plant (HWP) to approach the Controlling Authority under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, seeking payment of the differential amount. The Controlling Authority held that the provisions of the Payment of Gratuity Act were applicable to HWP employees and directed payment of the difference between the gratuity computed under the two frameworks.
On the issue of jurisdiction and applicability, the Authority determined that HWP qualifies as an “industry” within the meaning of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. Consequently, the employee fell within the scope of Section 1(3)(b) of the Payment of Gratuity Act. The Authority also relied upon the decision of the Madras High Court dated 29 January 2016 in a batch of writ petitions.
Aggrieved by this order, HWP, Tuticorin filed an appeal before the Deputy Chief Labour Commissioner, which was dismissed. The appellate authority similarly upheld the finding that HWP is an industry under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, and that its employees are “industrial employees” covered under the first limb of Section 2(e) of the Payment of Gratuity Act.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from N. Manoharan & Ors. v. The Administrative Officer & Anr. (2026 INSC 143)]
61. Which statute provides a higher gratuity benefit in the given case?
A. Central Civil Services (Pension) Rules, 1972
B. Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
C. Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972
D. Employees’ Provident Funds Act, 1952
Answer: C
62. HWP was held to be an “industry” under which law?
A. Factories Act, 1948
B. Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
C. Contract Labour Act, 1970
D. Minimum Wages Act, 1948
Answer: B
63. The Controlling Authority relied on a judgment of which High Court?
A. Delhi High Court
B. Bombay High Court
C. Calcutta High Court
D. Madras High Court
Answer: D
64. Which of the following is NOT an essential element of “industry” under Section 2(j)?
A. Systematic activity
B. Cooperation between employer and employee
C. Production/distribution of goods or services
D. Profit motive
Answer: D
65. Under the Industrial Disputes Act, “closure” refers to:
A. Permanent closing down of a place of employment or part thereof
B. Temporary suspension of work
C. Reduction in workforce
D. Refusal to employ workers temporarily
Answer: A
XIV. The doctrine of manifest arbitrariness emerges as a natural extension of the equality principle embodied in Article 14 of the Constitution of India. The term “manifest” limits judicial intervention to those cases where the absence of reason is evident on the face of the law or action. In other words, arbitrariness must be apparent, not inferred through subjective interpretation. It must be capable of clear and objective determination.
Under this doctrine, courts examine whether a legislative or executive measure is founded on a rational principle connected to the object it seeks to achieve. If the decision-making process reveals intrusion of subjective or unguided discretion, lacking any discernible standard, it undermines the legitimacy of the exercise of power and may amount to illegality.
In Air India v. Nergesh Meerza, the Supreme Court clarified that even where a provision does not violate Article 14 on grounds of discrimination, it can still be struck down if it is found to be wholly unreasonable or absolutely arbitrary. The Court observed that conditions which are manifestly unjust or irrational cannot withstand constitutional scrutiny.
Thus, the doctrine broadens the scope of Article 14 to encompass all forms of State action. It reinforces the idea that the Constitution demands rationality in every exercise of power, whether legislative or executive. Manifest arbitrariness is therefore not a challenge to legislative authority but a constitutional safeguard that ensures laws derive their legitimacy from reason, fairness, and coherence with democratic principles.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from State of West Bengal & Anr. v. Confederation of State Government Employees, West Bengal & Ors., SLP(C) Nos. 22628-22630 of 2022]
66. The doctrine of “manifest arbitrariness” primarily relates to:
A. Procedural fairness in administrative law
B. Substantive due process under Article 21
C. Equality and non-arbitrariness under Article 14
D. Federal distribution of powers
Answer: C
67. The Supreme Court in Air India v. Nergesh Meerza held that:
A. Even non-discriminatory provisions can be struck down if arbitrary
B. Arbitrary laws may be valid if passed by Parliament
C. Only discriminatory laws violate Article 14
D. Article 14 applies only to executive actions
Answer: A
68. Which case is MOST closely associated with the shift from “classification test” to “arbitrariness test”?
A. E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu
B. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
C. Anwar Ali Sarkar case
D. Golaknath case
Answer: A
69. Which later case effectively diluted the restrictive view in McDowell and revived arbitrariness as a ground?
A. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
B. Shayara Bano v. Union of India
C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
D. Anwar Ali Sarkar case
Answer: B
70. A law is perfectly clear but harsh and unreasonable. Under manifest arbitrariness, it may be struck down because:
A. Harshness equals illegality
B. Lack of proportionality alone invalidates law
C. Courts prefer lenient laws
D. Absence of rational justification renders it unconstitutional
Answer: D
XV. The petitioner’s case does not fall within the scope of Section 8 of the Citizenship Act, 1955, as she has not voluntarily renounced her Indian citizenship. Likewise, Section 9 of the Act, which deals with the termination of citizenship upon acquisition of foreign nationality, is not applicable, since the petitioner has not acquired citizenship of any other country.
It is true that the petitioner was issued a Swiss travel document (passport for foreigners) on 02.07.2009 for herself and her family. However, this document was granted under Swiss law—specifically for individuals who do not possess a national passport but hold a valid Swiss residence permit or are asylum seekers. Such a document is temporary in nature and was valid for five years, until 01.07.2014.
In the present case, the petitioner held only a Swiss residence permit, and the issuance of a foreigner’s passport did not amount to acquisition of Swiss citizenship. Therefore, it does not attract the operation of Section 9 of the Citizenship Act. The documents on record support this position.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from Ms. Yangchen Drakmargyapon v. Union of India & Ors., W.P.(C) 16380/2024]
71. Which of the following best explains why Section 9 was held inapplicable in the present case?
A. The petitioner renounced Indian citizenship
B. The petitioner acquired dual nationality
C. The petitioner overstayed abroad
D. The petitioner did not acquire citizenship of another country
Answer: D
72. A residence permit issued by a foreign State confers:
A. Citizenship
B. Nationality
C. Right to diplomatic protection
D. Permission to reside without nationality change
Answer: D
73. Which international principle prevents arbitrary deprivation of nationality?
A. Principle of Non-Refoulement
B. Principle of Self-Determination
C. Human Rights Norms under UDHR
D. Sovereign Equality
Answer: C
74. The grant of asylum by a State is primarily based on:
A. Obligation under customary international law
B. Sovereign discretion of the State
C. UN Security Council approval
D. Consent of the home State
Answer: B
75. Expulsion of an asylum seeker is prohibited if:
A. There is a risk of torture or persecution upon return
B. The person lacks documents
C. The person entered illegally
D. The host State is overcrowded
Answer: A
XVI. In “Hridaya Ranjan Prasad Verma”, the Hon’ble Supreme Court observed that there is a fine distinction between mere breach of contract and the offence of cheating. Mere breach of contract cannot give rise to criminal prosecution for cheating unless fraudulent or dishonest intention is shown right at the beginning of the transaction. The Hon’ble Supreme Court further held that it is necessary to show that the accused person had fraudulent or dishonest intention at the time of making the promise and mere failure to keep up the promise subsequently is not sufficient. In the present case, there was no deception at the inception or subsequently by the petitionercompany. There is no allegation of any favor extended to or by the petitioner-company which was all the time insisting on a resolution plan for its revival. The alleged loss of public exchequer does not fall within the meaning of wrongful loss in absence of any evidence of intentional and fraudulent act on the part of the petitioner-company. The CBI could not detect any illegal act or deceit in the entire transaction played by any of the directors of
the petitioner-company. Their identity is known but there is no allegation against any of them. The machinery of criminal justice system cannot be put in motion for making a roving inquiry. The CBI cannot be permitted to continue with the investigation in this matter in a hope that some day it may identify the offender where no offender has yet been identified.
[Extracted from GTL Limited v. Central Bureau of Investigation & Anr., Writ Petition No. 3631 of 2024]
76. According to the passage, which of the following is essential to constitute the offence of cheating?
A. Mere failure to perform a contract
B. Loss to public exchequer
C. Fraudulent or dishonest intention at the inception
D. Existence of a civil dispute
Answer: C
77. Section 39 of Indian Contract Act applies when a party:
A. Performs the contract partially
B. Refuses or disables himself from performing the promise wholly
C. Commits minor breach
D. Delays performance
Answer: B
78. In case of anticipatory breach, the promisee may:
A. Always continue the contract
B. Immediately terminate the contract
C. Sue only after due date
D. Do nothing
Answer: B
79. As per the Supreme Court’s ruling in Hridaya Ranjan Prasad Verma, mere failure to honour a promise:
A. Automatically constitutes cheating
B. May constitute cheating if loss is caused
C. Does not constitute cheating unless intention at inception is dishonest
D. Always gives rise to criminal liability
Answer: C
80. Under the Indian Contract Act, a proposal when accepted becomes:
A. Promise
B. Contract
C. Agreement
D. Consideration
Answer: A
XVII. The Court observes that the cross-examination of both expert doctors did not bring out any material contradiction or weakness in their testimony. Their statements remained consistent and unshaken. Relying on the medical reports and the doctors’ evidence, the Court concludes that the deaths of both deceased persons were caused by septicemia shock resulting from deep burn injuries.
The appellant’s contention that septicemia could also arise due to inadequate medical treatment is found to be unpersuasive. The Court notes that the very need for medical treatment arose because of the severe burn injuries sustained. Therefore, the issue is not whether proper treatment was administered, but whether the injuries leading to death were caused by the acid attack.
Moreover, the Court takes into account the severity, nature, and extent of the injuries, particularly the parts of the body exposed to acid, which resulted in multiple burn injuries, as clearly reflected in the post-mortem report.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from Jagdamba Harijan v. State of U.P., Criminal Appeal No. 1841 of 2018]
81. Which principle would apply if the injury and subsequent treatment were part of a continuous sequence leading to death?
A. Novus actus interveniens
B. Proximate cause rule
C. Volenti non fit injuria
D. Damnum sine injuria
Answer: B
82. The Eggshell Skull Rule is also known as:
A. Thin skull rule
B. Golden rule
C. Last opportunity rule
D. Reasonable man rule
Answer: A
83. In Smith v. Leech Brain & Co Ltd, the court held the defendant liable because:
A. Cancer was foreseeable
B. Injury was intentional
C. Burn injury triggered fatal consequences
D. Employer admitted guilt
Answer: C
84. The Eggshell Skull Rule mainly affects:
A. Duty of care
B. Breach of duty
C. Extent of damages
D. Jurisdiction
Answer: C
85. The Court’s reasoning aligns most closely with which test?
A. But-for test
B. Bolam test
C. Reasonable man test
D. Last opportunity rule
Answer: A
XVIII. The Apex Court in the case of All India Judges Association Vs. Union of India and others, reported in (2024) 1 SCC 546, has also observed that the Judges are not comparable with the administrative and executive officers. They discharge sovereign state function and just like the Council of Ministers or political executive, their service is different from the secretarial staff or administrative executive, which carries out the decisions of the political executive. Therefore, they are only comparable with political executive and legislature. Therefore, it is clear that while a Judicial Officer (may be the Judicial Officer of Junior Division) is discharging his judicial function, he is above to the District Magistrate or District Police Chief and even to political head of a State. Anyone entering his Court has to give respect to the Chair of the concerned Judicial Magistrate and disregarding the order of Judicial Magistrate is not only the contempt of Court, but also challenging the authority of law, as they are discharging their duty to uphold the rule of law. District Judicial Officers are the first who grant relief to a common person. Therefore, they are the backbone of the judiciary, and disrespecting or disregarding the judicial orders passed by the judicial officers in the District Courts is absolutely unpardonable and deserves to be punished, being contempt of their Courts;
………..This Court, considering the fact that CCTV cameras installed at police stations, are not being regularly checked by the DLOC or senior police officials, despite the directions of the Apex Court in the case of Paramvir Singh Saini (supra) which is the law of land under Article 141 of the Constitution of India that is binding not only on the Courts, but on all the police officers. If a police officer fails to discharge his duty to comply with the directions of the Apex Court, then it is the paramount duty of the judicial officers to see whether the directions of the Apex Court has been complied with by the police officer in letter and spirit or not.
[Extracted from Sanu @ Rashid v. State of U.P., Criminal Misc. Bail Application No. 3821 of 2026]
86. The observation that judges are not comparable to administrative or executive officers is primarily based on:
A. Their higher salary structure
B. Their role in policy-making
C. Their discharge of sovereign judicial functions
D. Their appointment by the President
Answer: C
87. Article 141 of the Constitution ensures that:
A. Only High Court judgments are binding
B. Supreme Court decisions are advisory
C. Only Parliament can declare law
D. Law declared by Supreme Court is binding on all authorities
Answer: D
88. The case of Paramvir Singh Saini v. Baljit Singh is primarily associated with:
A. Police reforms in recruitment
B. Installation and monitoring of CCTV cameras in police stations
C. Judicial appointments
D. Prison reforms
Answer: B
89. Arbitrary State action violates which principle?
A. Doctrine of Eclipse
B. Rule of Law
C. Doctrine of Pith and Substance
D. Territorial Nexus
Answer: B
90. Which of the following situations would MOST clearly uphold Rule of Law?
A. Trial before an independent judiciary
B. Punishment without trial
C. Arrest without warrant or reason
D. Executive deciding guilt
Answer: C
XIX. A careful reading of Section 36-A of the Act reveals that it mandates summary trial for certain offences. Specifically, notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of Criminal Procedure, all offences punishable with imprisonment up to three years, except those under Section 33(1)(b), are to be tried summarily by a Judicial Magistrate First Class. However, this provision expressly excludes offences that are triable by a Special Court under Section 36-AB or by a Court of Sessions.
Thus, Section 36-A clearly carves out an exception by removing from its scope those offences which fall within the jurisdiction of Special Courts or the Court of Sessions. Further, Section 32(2) reinforces this position by stipulating that no court inferior to a Court of Sessions shall try offences punishable under Chapter IV of the Act. Consequently, offences under Chapter IV are exclusively triable by a Court of Sessions and cannot be adjudicated by a Judicial Magistrate, even under the summary procedure contemplated by Section 36-A.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from M/s SBS Biotech & Ors. v. State of Himachal Pradesh (2026 INSC 171)]
91. Which of the following Magistrates can try cases summarily under CrPC/BNSS?
A. Any Magistrate
B. Only Chief Judicial Magistrate
C. CJM, Metropolitan Magistrate, and JMFC (if empowered)
D. Only Sessions Judge
Answer: C
92. Which of the following offences is generally NOT suitable for summary trial?
A. Simple theft
B. Offence punishable with life imprisonment
C. Minor hurt cases
D. Public nuisance
Answer: B
93. Section 6 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 provides for:
A. Powers of police
B. Classes of Criminal Courts
C. Bail provisions
D. Trial procedure
Answer: B
94. Under Section 8 BNSS, who establishes a Court of Session?
A. State Government
B. High Court
C. Central Government
D. Supreme Court
Answer: A
95. In absence of both Sessions Judge and Additional Sessions Judge, who may deal with urgent applications?
A. Executive Magistrate
B. High Court Registrar
C. District Magistrate
D. Chief Judicial Magistrate
Answer: D
XX. In continuation of the earlier proceedings, this Court, by its order dated 01.09.2020, observed that the issue of whether spectrum could be subjected to proceedings under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 involved a question of considerable legal significance. Consequently, specific questions of law were framed and, by order dated 25.09.2022, referred to the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal with a direction to adjudicate the same after hearing all concerned parties and to return a reasoned determination.
……………..Pursuant to the decision of the appellate tribunal, multiple appeals and cross-appeals have been preferred challenging the impugned order and the various conclusions recorded therein. The lead appeal has been filed by the State Bank of India, representing the financial creditors of the corporate debtor, assailing certain findings of the tribunal on the referred questions. Likewise, the erstwhile Resolution Professional of the corporate debtor has also instituted a similar challenge to the conclusions arrived at by the tribunal.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from State Bank of India v. Union of India & Ors., 2026 INSC 153]
96. The National Company Law Appellate Tribunal primarily hears appeals against orders of:
A. High Courts
B. District Courts
C. Supreme Court
D. National Company Law Tribunal
Answer: D
97. Under the Companies Act, 2013, appeals from NCLAT lie to:
A. High Court
B. District Court
C. Supreme Court
D. Central Government
Answer: C
98. The NCLAT was established under which statute?
A. Companies Act, 1956
B. Companies Act, 2013
C. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code
D. SEBI Act
Answer: B
99. According to the passage, who filed the lead appeal challenging the findings of NCLAT?
A. Central Government
B. Corporate Debtor
C. State Bank of India
D. High Court
Answer: C
100. The dispute in the passage primarily concerns the classification of spectrum as:
A. Asset capable of being subjected to insolvency process
B. Personal property
C. Criminal evidence
D. Government tax
Answer: A
XXI. Thus, it is clear that mere discovery of an error, irregularity or omission in the framing of charge does not ipso facto render the decision of the Court as invalid. In fact, even a case of non-framing of charge is not liable to be discarded on that ground alone. In order to vitiate the entire findings, what is necessary is the failure of justice as a result of such error or omission or irregularity. Therefore, it requires an answer as to whether the defect in the framing of charge in the present case has occasioned a failure of justice for the accused. Further, whether it prevented the accused from having a fair trial or has denied them any opportunity to present a valid defence before the Trial Court.
[Extracted from Bhagavathiraj v. State represented by the Inspector of Police, All Women Police Station, Theni (Crl.A.(MD) No.120 of 2025)]
101. The concept of fair trial as a human right is recognized under the Universal Declaration of Human Rights primarily in:
A. Article 5
B. Article 10
C. Article 12
D. Article 21
Answer: B
102. As per Bharat Parikh v. CBI, once a charge is framed under Section 228 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, (Section 251 BNSS), the Court:
A. Can discharge the accused at any stage
B. Can drop the charge if new evidence appears
C. Has no power to discharge the accused
D. Must refer the matter to High Court
Answer: C
103. If the offence is NOT exclusively triable by the Court of Session, the Judge:
A. May frame charge and transfer case to Magistrate
B. Must acquit the accused
C. Must try the case himself
D. Must refer to High Court
Answer: A
104. According to the passage, mere error or irregularity in framing of charge:
A. Always invalidates the trial
B. Automatically leads to acquittal
C. Requires retrial in all cases
D. Does not ipso facto render the decision invalid
Answer: D
105. The purpose of stating contents of charge is to:
A. Inform accused of allegations
B. Help police investigation
C. Convict accused quickly
D. Avoid trial
Answer: A
XXII. The present writ petition has been filed under Article 226 of the Constitution of India, challenging the legality and validity of the order dated 30.12.2024 (Annexure P/12) passed by the respondent authorities. By the said order, the petitioner was directed to obtain and submit a succession certificate from the competent court in support of her claim for compassionate appointment, and consequently, her application was not considered on merits under the applicable policy.
Learned counsel for the petitioner submitted that she is the legally wedded wife of the deceased employee and, in terms of the governing compassionate appointment policy, holds the primary and preferential right to be considered for such appointment. It was further contended that the policy does not contemplate or permit the consideration of a younger brother of a deceased married employee for compassionate appointment. The insistence by the respondents on the production of a succession certificate was argued to be arbitrary, unjustified, and contrary to the policy, particularly when the petitioner’s status as the widow of the deceased employee is undisputed.
On these grounds, the petitioner has sought quashing of the impugned order dated 30.12.2024 and has prayed for a direction to the respondents to consider her claim for compassionate appointment strictly in accordance with the applicable policy.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from Smt. Manisha v. M.P. State Agriculture Marketing Board (2026:MPHC-IND:3152)]
106. The writ petition has been filed under Article 226 of the Constitution of India for:
A. Criminal prosecution
B. Enforcement of contractual rights only
C. Challenging legality and validity of administrative order
D. Filing appeal against conviction
Answer: C
107. The impugned order required the petitioner to:
A. File a civil suit
B. Submit succession certificate
C. Pay compensation
D. Withdraw application
Answer: B
108. The petitioner claims entitlement to compassionate appointment as:
A. Daughter
B. Sister
C. Friend
D. Legally wedded wife
Answer: D
109. The writ jurisdiction under Article 226 is:
A. Limited to fundamental rights only
B. Wider than Article 32
C. Only appellate in nature
D. Limited to civil disputes
Answer: B
110. If the respondents acted contrary to policy, the action is:
A. Arbitrary
B. Valid
C. Legislative
D. Judicial
Answer: A
XXIII. In Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India, decided on 28 August 1996, the Supreme Court of India marked a significant step in aligning domestic environmental jurisprudence with global sustainable development principles introduced by the Brundtland Report. The case arose from a public interest litigation concerning the pollution of the River Palar in Tamil Nadu due to untreated effluents discharged by tanneries. The Court held that the precautionary principle and the polluter pays principle are integral to Indian environmental law. It emphasized that economic development cannot come at the cost of ecological degradation or public health, asserting that remediation of environmental damage is an essential component of sustainable development, and that polluters are liable not only to compensate affected individuals but also to restore the damaged ecology.
In Narmada Bachao Andolan v. Union of India, the Court examined whether environmental clearance for the construction of a dam had been granted without adequate assessment of its environmental impact and whether statutory environmental safeguards had been violated. While acknowledging concerns, the Court found that the government had sufficiently considered environmental factors, despite differing opinions between the Ministries involved, and allowed the project to proceed subject to the implementation of compensatory and mitigation measures. The Court clarified that sustainable development involves determining the extent of development that can be supported by nature, with or without mitigation.
This principle is further reinforced by constitutional mandates such as Article 48-A, which directs the State to protect and improve the environment, and Article 51A(g), which imposes a duty on citizens to safeguard natural resources. Following global developments like the Stockholm Conference and the 42nd Constitutional Amendment, India has enacted a comprehensive framework of environmental laws, including the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980, the Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991, the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, and the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. These statutes are administered by institutions such as the Central Pollution Control Board, State Pollution Control Boards, and the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, while environmental disputes are adjudicated by the Supreme Court, High Courts, and the National Green Tribunal.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from Khurana, Gagnish Singh, “Environmental Law and Policy in Sustainable Development: An Insight.” International Journal of Health, Environment and Research, vol. 3.]
101. The case of Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India is primarily known for:
A. Introducing absolute liability in India
B. Recognising precautionary and polluter pays principles
C. Establishing public trust doctrine
D. Declaring right to livelihood under Article 21
Answer: B
102. Which constitutional provision directs the State to protect and improve the environment?
A. Article 14
B. Article 19
C. Article 48A
D. Article 32
Answer: C
103. The 42nd Amendment followed which international event?
A. Stockholm Conference
B. Kyoto Protocol
C. Rio Earth Summit
D. Paris Agreement
Answer: A
104. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in:
A. 1972
B. 1986
C. 1981
D. 1974
Answer: D
105. The concept of sustainable development in India was influenced by:
A. Magna Carta
B. French Revolution
C. Brundtland Report
D. UN Charter
Answer: C
XXIV. The Court strongly criticised the growing trend of adopting a “consider jurisprudence” approach, whereby courts merely direct authorities to “consider” a matter instead of granting concrete relief. Such an approach, according to the Court, is counterproductive and undermines the effective administration of justice. It emphasised that when a legal right is clearly established and justified, relief must necessarily follow. Constitutional and statutory remedies are not meant for academic or theoretical exercise; rather, they exist to provide real and timely relief. The Court cautioned that balancing of equities should not be misused as a ground to delay or avoid granting relief. It further highlighted that beyond written laws, the strength of the legal system lies in its practices—habits shaped by shared values and beliefs that give life to the rule of law. Therefore, remedies must be simple, effective, and efficient, reflecting both the spirit and purpose of law.
Applying these principles to the case at hand, the Court observed that the High Court had failed to issue a clear and categorical direction regarding the existence of the right, its violation, and the precise obligations of the government. Such lack of clarity leaves room for ambiguity and non-compliance. The Court stressed that judicial orders must be explicit, leaving the State with no option but to comply, appeal, or face contempt proceedings. It also criticised the increasing misuse of contempt jurisdiction as a shortcut to obtain relief, especially when appealable orders already exist. In the present case, the government had passed a detailed order dated 09.05.2025, which remained unchallenged, and the High Court’s subsequent order dated 28.05.2025 failed to even refer to it. The Court therefore held that the appropriate course of action for the respondents was to challenge the government’s order directly rather than invoking contempt jurisdiction.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from Mahendra Prasad Agarwal v. Arvind Kumar Singh & Ors. (2026 INSC 175)]
116. In the present case, the Court found fault with the High Court because it:
A. Declined jurisdiction
B. Ignored the constitutional provisions
C. Failed to consider an existing government order
D. Overruled Supreme Court precedent
Answer: C
117. According to the passage, when a legal right is clearly established:
A. Relief may be granted at the Court’s discretion
B. Relief must necessarily follow
C. Relief should be postponed for policy considerations
D. Relief should be granted only after executive approval
Answer: B
118. The Court warns that “balancing of equities” should not be used to:
A. Interpret statutes
B. Grant interim relief
C. Promote fairness
D. Delay or deny justified relief
Answer: D
119. Under the Constitution of India, the High Courts derive their contempt powers from:
A. Article 215
B. Article 214
C. Article 226
D. Article 227
Answer: A
120. The Rule of Law was propounded by Dicey in which book?
A. The Law of the Constitution
B. Law and Morals
C. Spirit of Laws
D. Principles of Legislation
Answer: A
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