UGC NET Law Mock Test Series – II | Practice Questions with Answers

List-I	List-II
A. Will theory	I. Right protects legally recognised interest
B. Interest theory	II. Right as protected choice or will
C. Hohfeld	III. Jural correlatives
D. Salmond	IV. Jurisprudence as science of civil law

Choose the correct answer:

1.A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

2. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

3. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

4. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

Answer: 4

2. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I	List-II
A. Corpus possessionis	I. Intention to possess
B. Animus possidendi	II. Physical control
C. Ownership	III. Bundle of rights
D. Possession	IV. Factual control recognised by law

Choose the correct answer:

1. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

2. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

3. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

4. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Answer: 1

3. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I	List-II
A. Holmes	I. Bad man theory
B. Gray	II. Law as what judges declare
C. Llewellyn	III. American Legal Realism
D. Ehrlich	IV. Living law

Choose the correct answer:

1. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

2. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

3. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

4. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Answer: 2

4. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I	List-II
A. Rawls	I. Greatest happiness
B. Bentham	II. Justice as fairness
C. Nozick	III. Entitlement theory
D. Aristotle	IV. Distributive and corrective justice

Choose the correct answer:

1. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

2. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

3. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

4. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Answer: 1

5. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I	List-II
A. Aquinas	I. Law as command of sovereign
B. Austin	II. Eternal law and natural law
C. Hart	III. Rule of recognition
D. Ihering	IV. Law as a means to an end

Choose the correct answer:

1. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

2. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

3. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

4. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Answer: 1

6. Which of the following statements are correct?

A. A legal duty is generally the correlative of a legal right.

B. Every moral duty is necessarily a legal duty.

C. A legal right may exist against a person or against the world at large.

D. Rights in rem are available only against a specific individual.

Choose the correct answer:

1. A and C only

2. A, B and C only

3. B and D only

4. A, C and D only

Answer: 1

7. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Hohfeldian analysis?

A. Right correlates with duty.

B. Privilege correlates with no-right.

C. Power correlates with liability.

D. Immunity correlates with disability.

Choose the correct answer:

1. A and B only

2. A, B and C only

3. A, B, C and D

4. C and D only

Answer: 3

8. Read the passage and answer the question:

A legal theorist argues that law cannot be understood merely as command, coercion or formal validity. Law must be studied in relation to social needs, competing interests and institutional adjustment.

The above view is closest to:

1. Austin’s analytical positivism

2. Kelsen’s Pure Theory of Law

3. Pound’s sociological jurisprudence

4. Savigny’s historical school

Answer: 3

9. Read the passage and answer the question:

A judge says that while deciding hard cases, courts do not merely apply rules mechanically. They also rely on standards that have moral weight and institutional acceptance, even when such standards are not framed as strict rules.

The reasoning is most closely associated with:

1. Bentham

2. Dworkin

3. Austin

4. Holland

Answer: 2

10. Read the passage and answer the question:

A person takes physical control of a movable object believing it to be abandoned and intends to exclude others from it. Later, it is found that the object belongs to another person.

Which concept is most directly involved?

1. Ownership

2. Possession

3. Legal personality

4. Sovereignty

Answer: 2

11. Which of the following statements are correct?

A. Utilitarian justice focuses on maximising overall happiness.

B. Rawls gives priority to equal basic liberties in his theory of justice.

C. Nozick supports patterned distributive justice as the central idea of entitlement theory.

D. Aristotle distinguishes between distributive and corrective justice.

Choose the correct answer:

1. A, B and D only

2. A and C only

3. B, C and D only

4. A, B, C and D

Answer: 1

12. Which of the following statements are correct?

A. Modernist legal thought generally assumes reason, order and universal legal categories.

B. Postmodern legal thought is sceptical of grand narratives and fixed meanings.

C. Postmodernism treats legal interpretation as entirely mechanical and value-free.

D. Critical approaches influenced by postmodernism often examine power in legal discourse.

Choose the correct answer:

1. A, B and D only

2. A and C only

3. B and C only

4. A, B, C and D

Answer: 1

13. In Donoghue v. Stevenson, the jurisprudential significance lies mainly in the development of:

1. Rule of recognition

2. Neighbour principle and duty of care

3. Volksgeist theory

4. Grundnorm doctrine

Answer: 2

14. The decision in Rylands v. Fletcher is primarily associated with:

1. Strict liability for escape of dangerous things

2. Absolute liability for hazardous industries without exceptions

3. Judicial review of administrative action

4. Corporate criminal liability

Answer: 1

15. Arrange the following live-in relationship cases in chronological order:

A. Badri Prasad v. Dy. Director of Consolidation

B. S. Khushboo v. Kanniammal

C. D. Velusamy v. D. Patchaiammal

D. Indra Sarma v. V.K.V. Sarma

1. A, B, C, D

2. B, A, D, C

3. A, C, B, D

4. C, A, B, D

Answer: 1

16. Arrange the following statutes in chronological order of enactment:

A. Hindu Marriage Act

B. Hindu Succession Act

C. Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act

D. Special Marriage Act

1. D, A, B, C

2. A, D, B, C

3. D, B, A, C

4. A, B, C, D

Answer: 1

17. Arrange the following in the order in which they are generally considered as sources of Muslim law:

A. Ijma

B. Quran

C. Qiyas

D. Hadith

1. B, D, A, C

2. D, B, A, C

3. B, A, D, C

4. A, B, C, D

Answer: 1

18. Arrange the following divorce-related concepts from the narrowest statutory ground to the broadest no-fault idea:

A. Cruelty

B. Desertion

C. Mutual consent divorce

D. Irretrievable breakdown of marriage

1. A, B, C, D

2. D, C, B, A

3. B, A, D, C

4. C, A, B, D

Answer: 1

19. Arrange the following cases relating to foreign matrimonial decrees and divorce recognition in chronological order:

A. Satya v. Teja Singh

B. Y. Narasimha Rao v. Y. Venkata Lakshmi

C. Neeraja Saraph v. Jayant V. Saraph

D. R. Vishwanathan v. Rukn-ul-Mulk Syed Abdul Wajid

1. D, A, B, C

2. A, D, C, B

3. D, B, A, C

4. B, A, D, C

Answer: 1

20. In Danial Latifi v. Union of India, the Supreme Court interpreted the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986 to mean that:

1. A divorced Muslim woman cannot claim any post-divorce maintenance

2. Reasonable and fair provision must be made within the iddat period for her future

3. Section 125 CrPC is unconstitutional for Muslim women

4. Dower is a substitute for all forms of maintenance

Answer: 2

21. Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India is primarily associated with which issue?

1. Restitution of conjugal rights

2. Bigamy by conversion to Islam and need for UCC

3. Adoption by Christian parents

4. Validity of foreign divorce decrees

Answer: 2

22. In D. Velusamy v. D. Patchaiammal, the Supreme Court discussed “relationship in the nature of marriage” mainly in the context of:

1. Hindu coparcenary

2. Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005

3. Muslim dower

4. Christian divorce

Answer: 2

23. Which of the following is NOT one of the peaceful means of settlement expressly mentioned in Article 33(1) of the UN Charter?

1. Enquiry

2. Mediation

3. Arbitration

4. Retorsion

Answer: 4

24. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A): The principle of non-refoulement is central to international refugee protection.

Reason (R): It prohibits returning a refugee to territories where their life or freedom would be threatened on protected grounds.

Choose the correct answer:

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

3. A is true, but R is false

4. A is false, but R is true

Answer: 1

25. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 1951 Refugee Convention and the 1967 Protocol?

A. The 1951 Convention originally contained temporal limitations.

B. The 1967 Protocol removed the temporal and geographical limitations for parties to the Protocol.

C. The 1967 Protocol replaced the 1951 Convention entirely.

D. Non-refoulement is associated with Article 33 of the 1951 Convention.

Choose the correct answer:

1. C and D only

2. A and C only

3. B, C and D only

4. A, B and D only

Answer: 4

26. Arrange the following in chronological order:

A. Universal Declaration of Human Rights

B. Geneva Conventions

C. Refugee Convention

D. Refugee Protocol

Choose the correct answer:

1. B, A, C, D

2. A, B, C, D

3. A, C, B, D

4. C, A, B, D

Answer: 2

27. In extradition law, the principle of double criminality means that:

1. The accused must have committed two offences in the requesting state

2. The offence must be punishable in both the requesting and requested states

3. The accused must be tried twice for the same offence

4. Extradition is possible only between two federal states

Answer: 2

28. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I	List-II
A. Double criminality	I. No surrender for political offences, subject to treaty exceptions
B. Specialty rule	II. Conduct must be criminal in both states
C. Political offence exception	III. Person tried only for offence for which extradited
D. Aut dedere aut judicare	IV. Extradite or prosecute

Choose the correct answer:

1. A–II, B–III, C–I, D–IV

2. A–III, B–II, C–IV, D–I

3. A–II, B–I, C–III, D–IV

4. A–IV, B–III, C–I, D–II

Answer: 1

29. Arrange the following extradition/asylum-related cases in chronological order:

A. Soering v. United Kingdom

B. R v. Bow Street Metropolitan Stipendiary Magistrate, ex parte Pinochet Ugarte

C. Abu Qatada v. United Kingdom

D. Asylum Case

Choose the correct answer:

1. D, A, B, C

2. A, D, B, C

3. D, B, A, C

4. B, D, A, C

Answer: 1

30. In Soering v. United Kingdom, the European Court of Human Rights held that extradition may violate the European Convention on Human Rights where there is a real risk of:

1. Denial of diplomatic protection

2. Exposure to inhuman or degrading treatment in the requesting state

3. Loss of nationality in the requested state

4. Prosecution for a non-political offence

Answer: 2

31. Arrange the following Indian environmental statutes in chronological order:

A. Environment Protection Act

B. Water Act

C. National Green Tribunal Act

D. Air Act

1. B, D, A, C

2. D, B, A, C

3. B, A, D, C

4. A, B, D, C

Answer: 1

32. Arrange the following environmental cases in chronological order:

A. Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India

B. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, Oleum Gas Leak

C. Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar

D. A.P. Pollution Control Board II v. Prof. M.V. Nayudu

1. B, C, A, D

2. C, B, A, D

3. B, A, C, D

4. A, B, C, D

Answer: 1

33. Arrange the following institutions/legislations in chronological order:

A. National Commission for Women Act

B. Protection of Human Rights Act

C. National Commission for Minorities Act

D. Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act

1. A, C, B, D

2. C, A, B, D

3. B, A, C, D

4. A, B, C, D

Answer: 1

34. Arrange the following in chronological order:

A. EIA Notification

B. Environment Protection Act

C. Rio Declaration

D. National Green Tribunal Act

1. B, A, C, D

2. C, B, A, D

3. B, C, A, D

4. A, B, C, D

Answer: 3

35. Arrange the following instruments in chronological order:

A. Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women

B. Convention on the Rights of the Child

C. Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities

D. UN Declaration on the Rights of Indigenous Peoples

1. A, B, C, D

2. A, B, D, C

3. B, A, C, D

4. A, C, B, D

Answer: 1

36. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I	List-II
A. Polluter Pays Principle	I. Risk of serious environmental harm despite scientific uncertainty
B. Precautionary Principle	II. Cost of pollution control borne by polluter
C. Sustainable Development	III. Inter-generational resource use balance
D. Public Trust Doctrine	IV. State as trustee of natural resources

Choose the correct answer:

1. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

2. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

3. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

4. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Answer: 1

37. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I	List-II
A. Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum	I. Absolute liability
B. M.C. Mehta, Oleum Gas Leak	II. Precautionary and Polluter Pays principles
C. M.C. Mehta, Kamal Nath	III. Public Trust Doctrine
D. Subhash Kumar	IV. Right to pollution-free water and air

Choose the correct answer:

1. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

2. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

3. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

4. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Answer: 1

38. Match the UDHR Article with its subject:

List-I	List-II
A. Article 1	I. Right to life, liberty and security
B. Article 3	II. Freedom of thought, conscience and religion
C. Article 18	III. Free and equal in dignity and rights
D. Article 26	IV. Right to education

Choose the correct answer:

1. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

2. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

3. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

4. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Answer: 2

39. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I	List-II
A. NHRC	I. Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993
B. NCW	II. National Commission for Women Act, 1990
C. NCM	III. National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992
D. NCSC	IV. Article 338 of the Constitution

Choose the correct answer:

1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

2. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

3. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

4. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Answer: 1

40. Match the NGT-related provision with its subject:

List-I	List-II
A. Section 14	I. Relief and compensation
B. Section 15	II. Original jurisdiction
C. Section 16	III. Appellate jurisdiction
D. Section 29	IV. Bar of civil court jurisdiction

Choose the correct answer:

1. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
2. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
3. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
4. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

Answer: 1

41. Which of the following best describes the doctrine of colourable legislation?

1. A law is invalid merely because it incidentally affects another legislative field.

2. A legislature cannot do indirectly what it cannot do directly.

3. A State law always prevails over Union law in the State List.

4. A law is valid only if it has nationwide application.

Answer: 2

42. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A): The principles of natural justice are flexible and their application depends on the facts and statutory context.

Reason (R): Natural justice is confined only to courts and has no application to administrative authorities.

Choose the correct answer:

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

3. A is true, but R is false.

4. A is false, but R is true.

Answer: 3

43. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Article 32 and Article 226?

A. Article 32 is itself a Fundamental Right.

B. Article 226 jurisdiction is wider than Article 32.

C. Article 32 can be invoked only for enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

D. Article 226 can be used only for Fundamental Rights and never for other legal rights.

Choose the correct option:

1. A, C and D only

2. A and D only

3. B, C and D only

4. A, B and C only

Answer: 4

44. Read the following situation and answer:

A State law imposes regulatory conditions on an activity falling substantially within the State List. Incidentally, the law affects a matter in the Union List. The dominant purpose of the law remains within the State legislative field.

Which doctrine is most relevant to test its validity?

1. Eclipse

2. Pith and substance

3. Severability

4. Pleasure doctrine

Answer: 2

45. In Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union of India, decided in 2024 on the Electoral Bonds Scheme, the Supreme Court principally linked voters’ access to political funding information with:

1. Article 14 only

2. Article 19(1)(a)

3. Article 21 only

4. Article 29(1)

Answer: 2

46. Arrange the following in the order in which they appear in the Constitution:

A. Fundamental Duties

B. Directive Principles of State Policy

C. Fundamental Rights

D. Emergency Provisions

Choose the correct option:

1. C, B, A, D

2. B, C, A, D

3. C, A, B, D

4. A, B, C, D

Answer: 1

47. Which of the following is NOT correct regarding quasi-judicial functions?

1. They generally involve determination of rights or liabilities.

2. They may require observance of natural justice.

3. They are identical to purely legislative functions.

4. They may be performed by administrative bodies.

Answer: 3

48. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A): The rule of law is inconsistent with arbitrary administrative discretion.

Reason (R): Discretionary power must be exercised according to constitutional limits, relevant considerations and non-arbitrariness.

Choose the correct answer:

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

3. A is true, but R is false.

4. A is false, but R is true.

Answer: 1

49. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I	List-II
A. A.K. Gopalan	I. Expansive due process-like reading of Article 21
B. Maneka Gandhi	II. Narrow early interpretation of personal liberty
C. Kharak Singh	III. Domiciliary visits and privacy concerns
D. Puttaswamy	IV. Right to privacy as a Fundamental Right

Choose the correct option:

1. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

2. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

3. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

4. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

Answer: 1

50. Read the following situation and answer:

A government department introduces a digital identity verification process for welfare access. The process is designed in a way that effectively excludes persons with disabilities from completing verification, though no exclusion is expressly stated.

Which constitutional principle is most directly implicated in light of recent Article 21 jurisprudence?

1. Only freedom of trade under Article 19(1)(g).

2. Inclusive and meaningful digital access as part of life and liberty.

3. Exclusive minority protection under Article 30.

4. Parliamentary privilege under Article 105.

Answer: 2

51. Arrange the following patent-related international instruments in chronological order:

A. Patent Cooperation Treaty

B. Paris Convention

C. Budapest Treaty

D. TRIPS Agreement

Choose the correct answer:

1. B, A, C, D

2. A, B, C, D

3. B, C, A, D

4. C, B, A, D

Answer: 1

52. Arrange the following copyright and neighbouring-rights instruments in chronological order:

A. WIPO Copyright Treaty

B. Berne Convention

C. Marrakesh Treaty

D. Rome Convention

Choose the correct answer:

1. B, D, A, C

2. D, B, A, C

3. B, A, D, C

4. A, B, D, C

Answer: 1

53. Arrange the following in correct chronological order:

A. TRIPS Agreement

B. WIPO Performances and Phonograms Treaty

C. WIPO Treaty on Intellectual Property, Genetic Resources and Associated Traditional Knowledge

D. Marrakesh Treaty

Choose the correct answer:

1. B, A, D, C

2. A, B, D, C

3. A, D, B, C

4. D, A, B, C

Answer: 2

54. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A): Copyright protects originality of expression, not novelty of ideas.

Reason (R): Novelty and inventive step are patentability requirements, not copyright requirements.

Choose the correct answer:

1. A is true, but R is false

2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

3. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

4. A is false, but R is true

Answer: 3

55. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A): A geographical indication identifies goods as originating from a territory where a given quality, reputation or other characteristic is essentially attributable to its geographical origin.

Reason (R): A trademark primarily identifies the commercial source of goods or services of one trader from those of others.

Choose the correct answer:

1. Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains the distinction between GI and trademark

2. Both A and R are true, but R does not explain the distinction

3. A is true, but R is false

4. A is false, but R is true

Answer: 1

56. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A): Every digital signature recognised under the Information Technology Act is an electronic signature.

Reason (R): Electronic signature is a broader statutory expression, while digital signature is based on asymmetric crypto-system and hash function.

Choose the correct answer:

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

3. A is true, but R is false

4. A is false, but R is true

Answer: 1

57. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A): Section 3(d) of the Patents Act, 1970 is relevant to preventing evergreening of pharmaceutical patents.

Reason (R): It excludes every new form of a known substance, even where enhanced therapeutic efficacy is shown.

Choose the correct answer:

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

3. A is true, but R is false

4. A is false, but R is true

Answer: 3

58. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A): Traditional knowledge may create difficulties for patent examination when it is orally held or not easily searchable as prior art.

Reason (R): Patent systems are concerned only with registered intellectual property and never with prior public knowledge.

Choose the correct answer:

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

3. A is true, but R is false

4. A is false, but R is true

Answer: 3

59. Match List-I with List-II

List-I	List-II
A. Berne Convention	I. Industrial property
B. Paris Convention	II. International registration of marks
C. Madrid System	III. Copyright
D. Rome Convention	IV. Performers, producers of phonograms and broadcasting organisations

Choose the correct answer:

1. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

2. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

3. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

4. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Answer: 1

60. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I	List-II
A. Section 13, Copyright Act	I. Electronic contracts
B. Section 3(d), Patents Act	II. Works in which copyright subsists
C. Section 10A, IT Act	III. New form of known substance and enhanced efficacy
D. Section 70B, IT Act	IV. CERT-In

Choose the correct answer:

1. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

2. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

3. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

4. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Answer: 4

61. Match List-I with List-II

List-I	List-II
A. R.G. Anand v. Deluxe Films	I. Section 65B certificate for electronic evidence
B. Novartis AG v. Union of India	II. Idea-expression distinction
C. Cadila Health Care Ltd. v. Cadila Pharmaceuticals Ltd.	III. Enhanced efficacy under Section 3(d)
D. Arjun Panditrao Khotkar v. Kailash Kushanrao Gorantyal	IV. Deceptive similarity and passing off

Choose the correct answer:

1. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

2. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

3. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

4. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

Answer: 1

62. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I	List-II
A. Passing off	I. Registration-based statutory remedy
B. Trademark infringement	II. Reputation, misrepresentation and damage
C. Geographical indication	III. Origin-linked quality or reputation of goods
D. Certification trademark	IV. Certification of characteristics such as quality or origin

Choose the correct answer:

1. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

2. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

3. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

4. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

Answer: 1

63. Negligence in tort generally consists of:

1. Duty of care, breach of duty and resulting damage

2. Motive, malice and intention

3. Contract, consideration and breach

4. Mens rea and actus reus

Answer: 1

64. The “neighbour principle” in the law of negligence was formulated in:

1. Bradford Corporation v. Pickles

2. Rylands v. Fletcher

3. Donoghue v. Stevenson

4. Rookes v. Barnard

Answer: 3

65. Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, a “consumer” does not include a person who obtains goods for:

1. Consideration paid

2. Consideration partly paid and partly promised

3. Resale or commercial purpose

4. Deferred payment

Answer: 3

66. Match List-I with List-II under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.

List-I	List-II
A. Defect	I. Fault or imperfection in goods
B. Deficiency	II. Fault or inadequacy in service
C. Product liability	III. Responsibility to compensate for harm caused by defective product or deficient product-related service
D. Complaint	IV. Allegation in writing made by a complainant

Choose the correct answer:

1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

2. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

3. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

4. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Answer: 1

67. Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, “product manufacturer” is defined under:

1. Section 2(33)

2. Section 2(34)

3. Section 2(36)

4. Section 2(37)

Answer: 3

68. Which of the following statements regarding “deficiency” under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 are correct?

A. It relates to services.

B. It includes fault, imperfection, shortcoming or inadequacy in the quality, nature and manner of performance.

C. It includes acts of negligence or omission causing loss or injury to the consumer.

D. It applies only to manufacturing defects in goods.

Choose the correct answer:

1. A and D only

2. A, B and C only

3. B, C and D only

4. A, B, C and D

Answer: 2

69. Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, a complaint before a District Commission may be filed by:

1. Consumer only, and not by a recognised consumer association

2. Recognised consumer association only

3. Consumer, recognised consumer association, Central Government, State Government or Central Authority

4. Only the Central Consumer Protection Authority

Answer: 3

70. Which pair is correctly matched?

1. State of Rajasthan v Vidyawati — Absolute immunity of State for all torts

2. Kasturi Lal v State of U.P. — Sovereign function defence accepted

3. M.C. Mehta v Union of India — Neighbour principle

4. Ashby v White — Damnum sine injuria

Answer: 2

71. Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of a Federal constitution?

1. Distribution of powers between two levels of government

2. Supremacy of the Constitution

3. Independent judiciary for constitutional adjudication

4. Legal supremacy of ordinary legislation over the Constitution

Answer: 4

72. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A): Judicial review does not necessarily mean judicial supremacy.

Reason (R): Judicial review refers to the power of courts to test governmental action against constitutional or legal standards, while judicial supremacy implies final judicial dominance over constitutional meaning.

Choose the correct answer:

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

3. A is true, but R is false.

4. A is false, but R is true.

Answer: 1

73. In Marbury v. Madison, the Supreme Court of the United States is most closely associated with which principle?

1. Parliamentary sovereignty

2. Judicial review of legislation

3. Collective ministerial responsibility

4. Flexible constitutional amendment

Answer: 2

74. Which of the following statements are correct about the UK Constitution?

A. It is commonly described as uncodified rather than wholly unwritten.

B. Parliamentary sovereignty is a central doctrine of the UK constitutional tradition.

C. Constitutional conventions form part of UK constitutional practice.

D. The UK Constitution is amended only through a special Article V-type procedure.

Choose the correct answer:

1. B, C and D only

2. A and D only

3. A, B and C only

4. A, B, C and D

Answer: 3

75. Which of the following best distinguishes separation of powers from checks and balances?

1. Separation of powers requires complete institutional isolation, while checks and balances require no division of functions.

2. Separation of powers allocates governmental functions among organs, while checks and balances allow controlled interaction to prevent concentration of power.

3. Separation of powers applies only to parliamentary systems, while checks and balances apply only to unitary systems.

4. Separation of powers and checks and balances are mutually exclusive.

Answer: 2

76. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A): Parliamentary sovereignty in the classical Diceyan sense is difficult to reconcile with strong-form constitutional judicial review.

Reason (R): Strong-form judicial review permits courts to invalidate legislation that violates a superior constitutional norm.

Choose the correct answer:

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

3. A is true, but R is false.

4. A is false, but R is true.

Answer: 1

77. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the US Constitution?

A. It is a written constitution.

B. It establishes a federal system.

C. It provides for a parliamentary executive responsible to Congress.

D. It contains an amendment procedure under Article V.

Choose the correct answer:

1. A, B and D only

2. A and C only

3. B, C and D only

4. A, B, C and D

Answer: 1

78. Under BNS, organised crime has been introduced as a specific offence under:

1. Section 109

2. Section 111

3. Section 112

4. Section 113

Answer: 2

79. Which of the following is NOT a punishment under BNS?

1. Death

2. Imprisonment for life

3. Community service,

4. Transportation for life

Answer: 4

List-I	List-II
A. Deterrent theory	I. Reform of offender
B. Retributive theory	II. Prevention by fear
C. Preventive theory	III. Incapacitation of offender
D. Reformative theory	IV. Moral blame and deserved punishment

Choose the correct answer:

1. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
2. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
3. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
4. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Answer: 2

81. In Abhayanand Mishra v. State of Bihar, the Supreme Court dealt with which issue?

1. Grave and sudden provocation

2. Attempt and preparation

3. Common intention

4. Insanity

Answer: 2

82. In criminal law, “motive” is best understood as:

1. The immediate mental element required by the offence

2. The reason that prompts a person to act

3. The external element of the crime

4. A complete substitute for mens rea

Answer: 2

83. Which of the following statements regarding guarantees is correct?

A. A contract of guarantee involves three parties.

B. The liability of surety is generally co-extensive with that of the principal debtor.

C. A contract of guarantee cannot be oral.

D. Consideration received by the principal debtor is sufficient for the surety.

Choose the correct answer:

1. A, B and D only

2. A and C only

3. B, C and D only

4. A, B, C and D

Answer: 1

84. Which of the following statements regarding partnerships are correct?

A. Partnership arises from contract and not from status.

B. Mutual agency is a core test of partnership.

C. Sharing of profits is conclusive proof of partnership in all cases.

D. A partner is generally an agent of the firm for the business of the firm.

Choose the correct answer:

1. A, B and D only

2. A and C only

3. B and C only

4. A, B, C and D

Answer: 1

85. Which of the following statements regarding LLP are correct?

A. LLP is a body corporate.

B. LLP has separate legal personality from its partners.

C. Every partner of LLP is agent of every other partner.

D. LLP combines elements of partnership and corporate personality.

Choose the correct answer:

1. A, B and D only

2. A and C only

3. B, C and D only

4. A, B, C and D

Answer: 1

86. Which of the following statements are correct regarding prospectus and private placement?

A. A prospectus is generally connected with invitation to the public for subscription of securities.

B. Private placement is not the same as public issue through prospectus.

C. Prospectus provisions and private placement provisions are identical in purpose and procedure.

D. Misstatement in prospectus may attract civil and criminal consequences.

Choose the correct answer:

1. A, B and D only

2. A and C only

3. B and C only

4. A, B, C and D

Answer: 1

87. The obligation under Section 70 of the Indian Contract Act arises when a person:

1. Makes a proposal which is accepted

2. Lawfully does something for another, not intending it to be gratuitous, and the other enjoys the benefit

3. Finds goods belonging to another

4. Pays money by mistake

Answer: 2

88. In standard form contracts, the rule of contra proferentem generally means that:

1. Ambiguous terms are interpreted in favour of the party drafting the contract

2. Ambiguous exemption clauses are construed against the party relying on them

3. All standard form contracts are void

4. The court cannot examine unfair clauses

Answer: 2

89. Which of the following is a right of an unpaid seller against goods under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930?

1. Right of lien

2. Right to dissolve partnership

3. Right to appoint an arbitrator

4. Right to issue debentures

Answer: 1

90. Which of the following best reflects the legal position of e-contracts in India?

1. E-contracts are invalid unless executed on stamp paper only

2. E-contracts may be valid if essential elements of contract are satisfied and electronic records are legally recognised

3. E-contracts are valid only between companies

4. E-contracts cannot be formed by conduct or click-wrap acceptance

Answer: 2

91. Given below are two statements:

Assertion A: A contract may be discharged when performance becomes impossible due to a supervening event not caused by the promisor.

Reason R: Section 56 of the Indian Contract Act embodies the principle of supervening impossibility.

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

3. A is true, but R is false

4. A is false, but R is true

Answer: 1

92. The Competition Commission of India was established under:

1. Companies Act

2. Competition Act, 2002

3. Consumer Protection Act

4. SEBI Act

Answer: 2

93. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Motor Accident Claims Tribunal (MACT)?

A. It adjudicates motor accident compensation claims.

B. It functions as a specialised claims forum.

C. It deals exclusively with criminal trials.

D. Appeals from its awards generally lie before the High Court.

Options:

1. A and C only

2. B and C only

3. A, B and D only

4. All of the above

Answer: 3

94. Which of the following statements is correct regarding endorsement?

A. Endorsement enables transfer of negotiable instruments.

B. It may be blank or special.

C. Signature of endorser is generally required.

D. Endorsement has no legal effect.

Options:

1. A and D only

2. A, B and C only

3. B and D only

4. All of the above

Answer: 2

95. Which of the following is defined under the Information Technology Act, 2000?

1. Online gaming token

2. Blue tick verification

3. Social media influencer

4. Cyber terrorism

Answer: 4

Comprehension (96-100)

This Court cannot also remain oblivious to the harsh and deeply disturbing ground realities emerging from various parts of the country, where young children have been mauled, elderly persons have been attacked, ordinary citizens have been left vulnerable in public spaces and even international travellers have fallen victim to such incidents. If such conditions are permitted to continue unchecked, the inevitable consequence may lead to a regression towards a state where the Darwinian theory of evolution, namely, the survival of the fittest would effectively govern civic life and public spaces. Such a situation would be wholly incompatible with a constitutional democracy governed by the rule of law.

The Constitution of India does not envisage a society where children, elderly persons and vulnerable citizens are compelled to survive at the mercy of physical strength, chance or circumstance owing to the failure of the State machinery to discharge its constitutional and statutory obligations. The fundamental guarantee under Article 21 of the Constitution of India exists precisely to ensure that the weak and vulnerable are afforded equal protection of life, safety and dignity under the constitutional order.

96. The concern raised in the passage best relates to which governance issue?

1. International arbitration

2. Corporate regulation

3. Electoral reform

4. Public safety administration

Answer: 4

97. Equality before law is a feature of:

1. Judicial restraint

2. Parliamentary privilege

3. Rule of Law

4. Federal supremacy

Answer: 3

98. Which constitutional provision is directly referred to in the passage?

1. Article 15

2. Article 19

3. Article 21

4. Article 32

Answer: 3

99. Protection of the weak and vulnerable reflects which constitutional philosophy?

1. Welfare State

2. Police State

3. Minimal State

4. Laissez-faire State

Answer: 1

100. “Public order” is a subject under which list of the Seventh Schedule?

1. Union List

2. Residuary List

3. Concurrent List

4. State List

Answer: 4

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