Sharpen your legal preparation with Legal Bites UGC NET Law Mock Test Series—carefully curated to mirror the latest exam pattern, question style, and difficulty level. From Jurisprudence and Constitutional Law to International Law, IPC/BNS, Torts, Family Law, Environmental Law, and beyond, these mock tests are designed to help aspirants assess their knowledge, improve accuracy, and build exam confidence. Whether you are targeting JRF or Assistant Professor eligibility, this series offers a smart practice platform to strengthen concepts and maximise your score. Click Here to Unlock UGC NET Law Study Material
Sponsored: Practice 1000+ MCQ to master UGC NET Law Mock Test Series [June 2026]
UGC NET Law Mock Test Series – I
MCQs with Answers
1. “Law is the command of the sovereign.” Who gave this statement?
1. Savigny
2. John Austin
3. Roscoe Pound
4. Salmond
Answer: 2
2. Hohfeld is known for his analysis of:
1. Rights and duties
2. Sovereignty
3. Liability in tort
4. Legal realism
Answer: 1
3. Who described law as a tool of social engineering?
1. John Austin
2. Roscoe Pound
3. Savigny
4. Jerome Frank
Answer: 2
4. Which of the following is a formal source of law?
1. Custom
2. Legislation
3. Legal literature
4. Morality
Answer: 2
5. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): A legal right is generally enforceable by legal processes.
Reason (R): A moral right always has a remedy in a court of law.
Choose the correct answer:
1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true, but R is false
4. A is false, but R is true
Answer: 3
6. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Ownership is wider than possession.
Reason (R): A person may possess property without being its owner.
Choose the correct answer:
1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true, but R is false
4. A is false, but R is true
Answer: 1
7. Match List-I with List-II:
|
List-I |
List-II |
|
A. Austin |
I. Social engineering |
|
B. Kelsen |
II. Volksgeist |
|
C. Savigny |
III. Command theory |
|
D. Pound |
IV. Pure Theory of Law |
Choose the correct answer:
1. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
2. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
3. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
4. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Answer: 1
8. Postmodern approaches to law generally question:
1. The binding force of enacted statutes only
2. The possibility of neutral, universal and determinate legal meanings
3. The legal recognition of custom
4. The concept of possession in property law
Answer: 2
9. Hart’s distinction between primary and secondary rules was mainly introduced to overcome defects in:
1. Kelsen’s Pure Theory of Law
2. Austin’s command theory
3. Savigny’s historical school
4. Pound’s social engineering theory
Answer: 2
10. Which of the following best explains the distinction between constitutional supremacy and parliamentary sovereignty?
1. Constitutional supremacy means courts cannot invalidate legislation, whereas parliamentary sovereignty means courts may invalidate legislation.
2. Constitutional supremacy means all organs are bound by the Constitution, whereas parliamentary sovereignty means Parliament is legally supreme in law-making.
3. Constitutional supremacy exists only in unwritten constitutions, whereas parliamentary sovereignty exists only in written constitutions.
4. Constitutional supremacy and parliamentary sovereignty are identical doctrines.
Answer: 2
11. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): A written constitution is necessarily a rigid constitution.
Reason (R): Rigidity depends on the special procedure required for constitutional amendment.
Choose the correct answer:
1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is false, but R is true.
4. A is true, but R is false.
Answer: 3
12. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the presidential system of government?
A. The executive is generally independent of the legislature for its tenure.
B. The head of state and head of government are usually the same person.
C. Collective responsibility to the lower house is its essential feature.
D. Separation of powers is more pronounced than in a parliamentary system.
Choose the correct answer:
1. A, B and D only
2. A and C only
3. B, C and D only
4. A, B, C and D
Answer: 1
13. Match List-I with List-II:
|
List-I |
List-II |
|
A. Parliamentary sovereignty |
I. United States |
|
B. Judicial review in constitutional sense |
II. A.V. Dicey |
|
C. Rule of Law |
III. United Kingdom |
|
D. Written federal constitution |
IV. Marbury v Madison |
Choose the correct answer:
- A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
- A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
- A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
- A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Answer: 1
14. Arrange the following in chronological order:
A. Adoption of the US Constitution
B. Bill of Rights added to the US Constitution
C. Marbury v Madison
D. Dicey’s exposition of Rule of Law
Choose the correct answer:
1. A, B, C, D
2. B, A, C, D
3. A, C, B, D
4. C, A, B, D
Answer: 1
15. Which of the following is the correct constitutional position under Article 13 of the Constitution of India?
1. Constitutional amendments are expressly included within “law” under Article 13(3).
2. Pre-Constitution laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights become void to the extent of inconsistency.
3. Article 13 applies only to laws made by Parliament.
4. Article 13 does not apply to customs or usages having force of law.
Answer: 2
16. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Judicial review of constitutional amendments forms part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
Reason (R): Parliament’s power under Article 368 is a constituent power but not an unlimited power.
Choose the correct answer:
1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true.
Answer: 1
17. Which of the following rights is specifically protected under Article 16 of the Constitution?
1. Equality before law
2. Prohibition of discrimination in access to public places
3. Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
4. Protection of interests of minorities
Answer: 3
18. Match List-I with List-II:
|
List-I |
List-II |
|
A. Article 14 |
I. Protection of life and personal liberty |
|
B. Article 19 |
II. Equality before law |
|
C. Article 21 |
III. Certain freedoms of citizens |
|
D. Article 30 |
IV. Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions |
Choose the correct option:
1. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
2. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
3. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
4. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Answer: 1
19. Arrange the following cases in chronological order:
A. A.K. Gopalan v State of Madras
B. Kharak Singh v State of U.P.
C. Maneka Gandhi v Union of India
D. Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v Union of India
Choose the correct option:
1. A, B, C, D
2. B, A, C, D
3. A, C, B, D
4. C, A, B, D
Answer: 1
20. Which of the following statements about Article 19 is correct?
1. Article 19 freedoms are available to all persons.
2. Article 19(1)(a) includes freedom of speech and expression.
3. Restrictions under Article 19 can be imposed only by executive order.
4. Article 19 is suspended automatically during every emergency.
Answer: 2
21. In Maneka Gandhi v Union of India, the Supreme Court primarily held that:
1. Article 21 must be interpreted in isolation from Articles 14 and 19.
2. “Procedure established by law” must be just, fair and reasonable.
3. Preventive detention is unconstitutional in all circumstances.
4. The right to property is part of Article 21.
Answer: 2
22. Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
1. Article 245 — Extent of laws made by Parliament and State Legislatures
2. Article 246 — Subject-matter of laws made by Parliament and State Legislatures
3. Article 254 — Repugnancy between Union and State laws
4. Article 324 — Distribution of legislative powers
Answer: 4
23. Match List-I with List-II:
|
List-I |
List-II |
|
A. Pith and substance |
I. State law invalid due to conflict with Union law |
|
B. Colourable legislation |
II. Incidental encroachment on another legislative field |
|
C. Repugnancy |
III. Legislature doing indirectly what it cannot do directly |
|
D. Territorial nexus |
IV. Validity of law based on real connection with territory |
Choose the correct option:
- A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
- A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
- A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
- A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Answer: 1
24. Arrange the following constitutional amendment/basic structure cases in chronological order:
A. Shankari Prasad
B. Sajjan Singh
C. Golak Nath
D. Kesavananda Bharati
Choose the correct option:
1. A, B, C, D
2. A, C, B, D
3. B, A, C, D
4. C, A, B, D
Answer: 1
25. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Article 29 and Article 30?
A. Article 29 protects interests of minorities only.
B. Article 30 gives minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions.
C. Article 29(1) protects citizens having a distinct language, script or culture.
D. Article 30 applies only to linguistic minorities and not religious minorities.
Choose the correct option:
1. B and C only
2. A and B only
3. C and D only
4. A, B and D only
Answer: 1
26. In S.R. Bommai v. Union of India, the Supreme Court is best known for holding that:
1. President’s satisfaction under Article 356 is completely immune from judicial review.
2. Secularism is not part of the basic structure.
3. Proclamation under Article 356 is subject to judicial review.
4. Financial emergency automatically dissolves State Legislative Assemblies.
Answer: 3
27. Which of the following is correctly matched?
1. Article 352 — President’s Rule in States
2. Article 356 — National Emergency
3. Article 360 — Financial Emergency
4. Article 365 — Fundamental Duties
Answer: 3
28. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Article 14 prohibits class legislation but permits reasonable classification.
Reason (R): A valid classification must be founded on intelligible differentia and must have a rational nexus with the object sought to be achieved.
Choose the correct answer:
1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true.
Answer: 1
29. Which of the following is the correct position regarding Article 324?
1. It vests control over elections only in Parliament.
2. It vests superintendence, direction and control of elections in the Election Commission.
3. It applies only to elections to State Legislatures.
4. It excludes elections to the offices of President and Vice-President.
Answer: 2
30. In T.N. Seshan v. Union of India, the Supreme Court held that:
1. The Chief Election Commissioner alone constitutes the Election Commission.
2. The Election Commission may be a multi-member body.
3. Election Commissioners cannot be appointed by the President.
4. Article 324 is subject to Article 356.
Answer: 2
31. In Anoop Baranwal v Union of India, the Supreme Court directed that, until Parliament makes a law, appointments of the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners should be made on the advice of a committee consisting of:
1. Prime Minister, Speaker of Lok Sabha and Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha
2. Prime Minister, Chief Justice of India and Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha
3. President, Prime Minister and Chief Justice of India
4. Chief Justice of India, Speaker of Lok Sabha and Attorney General for India
Answer: 2
32. Which of the following statements about repugnancy under Article 254 is correct?
1. Repugnancy arises whenever Parliament and a State Legislature legislate on any subject.
2. Repugnancy is relevant primarily where Union and State laws operate in the Concurrent List field.
3. A State law can never prevail over a Union law.
4. Presidential assent has no relevance under Article 254.
Answer: 2
33. Arrange the following cases in chronological order:
A. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
B. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain
C. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
D. Waman Rao v. Union of India
Choose the correct option:
1. A, B, C, D
2. B, A, C, D
3. A, C, B, D
4. C, A, B, D
Answer: 1
34. Match List-I with List-II:
|
List-I |
List-II |
|
A. Kesavananda Bharati |
I. Harmony between Fundamental Rights and DPSPs |
|
B. Minerva Mills |
II. Basic Structure Doctrine |
|
C. S.R. Bommai |
III. Secularism and Article 356 review |
|
D. A.K. Kraipak |
IV. Natural justice in administrative action |
Choose the correct option:
- A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
- A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
- A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
- A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
Answer: 1
35. Why is the Ombudsman considered significant in modern governance?
1. It replaces courts entirely
2. It offers an accessible accountability mechanism against administrative abuse
3. It acts as legislature
4. It amends constitutional provisions
Answer: B
36. Arrange the following in the order of appearance in Indian Contract Act:
A. Indemnity
B. Bailment
C. Agency
D. Guarantee
Choose the correct answer:
1. A, D, B, C
2. D, A, B, C
3. B, A, D, C
4. A, B, D, C
Answer: 1
37. Which of the following statements are correct regarding quasi-contracts?
A. Based on unjust enrichment
B. Arise from agreement
C. Created by law
D. Require consideration
Choose the correct answer:
1. A, B Only
2. A and C Only
3. B, D Only
4. A, C, D Only
Answer: 2
38. Which of the following persons are competent to contract?
A. Minor of sound mind
B. Major, sound mind
C. Alien enemy
D. Person disqualified by law
Choose the correct answer:
1. B Only
2. A and B Only
3. B and C Only
4. A, B and D Only
Answer: 1
39. Which statement is incorrect?
1. Director acts as agent of company
2. Director acts as trustee in certain matters
3. Every director must be shareholder
4. DIN is required for director appointment
Answer: 3
40. Minimum number of directors in a public company is:
1. One
2. Two
3. Five
4. Three
Answer: 4
41. Assertion (A): Fraudulent misstatement in a prospectus may lead to criminal prosecution.
Reason (R): Fraud under the Companies Act may attract punishment under Section 447.
1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
2. Both are true, but R is not the correct explanation
3. A is true, but R is false
4. A is false, but R is true
Answer: 1
42. The doctrine of indoor management was laid down in:
1. Foss v. Harbottle
2. Royal British Bank v. Turquand
3. Salomon v. Salomon
4. Gilford Motor Co. v. Horne
Answer: 2
43. Which case established mutual agency as the real test of partnership?
1. Cox v. Hickman
2. Garner v. Murray
3. Salomon v. Salomon
4. Foss v. Harbottle
Answer: 1
44. Match List I with List II:
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| A. Sale | I. Immediate transfer |
| B. Agreement to sell | II. Future transfer |
| C. Lien | III. Retain possession |
| D. Stoppage in transit | IV. Recover goods |
Choose the correct answer:
1. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
2. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
3. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
4. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Answer: 4
45. Which of the following statements about a cheque are correct?
A. It is a species of bill of exchange
B. It is payable on demand
C. It is always drawn on a banker
D. It contains an unconditional promise to pay
Choose the correct answer:
1. A, B and C Only
2. A, C and D Only
3. B and D Only
4. A, B, C and D
Answer: 1
46. Which of the following correctly states the order of sources under Article 38(1) of the Statute of the International Court of Justice?
1. Custom, treaties, general principles, judicial decisions and teachings
2. Treaties, custom, general principles, judicial decisions and teachings
3. General principles, treaties, custom, judicial decisions and teachings
4. Treaties, general principles, judicial decisions, custom
Answer: 2
47. Match List-I with List-II:
|
List-I |
List-II |
|
A. Article 36, ICJ Statute |
I. Sources of international law |
|
B. Article 38, ICJ Statute |
II. Advisory opinion jurisdiction |
|
C. Article 65, ICJ Statute |
III. Contentious jurisdiction |
|
D. Article 96, UN Charter |
IV. Request for advisory opinion |
Choose the correct answer:
- A–III, B–I, C–II, D–IV
- A–I, B–III, C–IV, D–II
- A–III, B–II, C–I, D–IV
- A–IV, B–I, C–II, D–III
Answer: 1
48. Arrange the following instruments in chronological order:
A. Geneva Conventions
B. Additional Protocol I
C. Additional Protocol III
D. Refugee Protocol
Choose the correct answer:
1. A, D, B, C
2. A, B, D, C
3. D, A, B, C
4. A, C, D, B
Answer: 1
49. Which of the following statements are correct regarding de facto and de jure recognition?
A. De facto recognition is generally provisional in character.
B. De jure recognition implies a fuller and more final acceptance of legal status.
C. De facto recognition necessarily creates no legal consequences.
D. De jure recognition is always granted before de facto recognition.
Choose the correct answer:
1. A and B only
2. B and C only
3. A, B and C only
4. C and D only
Answer: 1
50. Match List-I with List-II:
|
List-I |
List-II |
|
A. Nottebohm Case |
I. Diplomatic asylum |
|
B. Asylum Case |
II. Genuine effective nationality |
|
C. Haya de la Torre Case |
III. Safe passage after diplomatic asylum dispute |
|
D. Lotus Case |
IV. Jurisdiction in absence of prohibitive rule |
Choose the correct answer:
- A–I, B–II, C–IV, D–III
- A–II, B–I, C–III, D–IV
- A–II, B–III, C–I, D–IV
- A–IV, B–I, C–III, D–II
Answer: 2
51. Arrange the following cases in chronological order:
A. Asylum Case
B. Haya de la Torre Case
C. Nottebohm Case
D. North Sea Continental Shelf Cases
Choose the correct answer:
1. B, A, C, D
2. A, C, B, D
3. C, A, B, D
4. A, B, C, D
Answer: 4
52. The “Nationally Determined Contributions” (NDCs) concept is associated with:
1. Kyoto Protocol
2. Paris Agreement
3. Rio Declaration
4. Durban Conference
Answer: 2
53. The maxim actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea means:
1. Motive alone is sufficient to constitute crime.
2. An act does not make a person guilty unless the mind is also guilty.
3. Criminal liability depends only on consequences.
4. Mens rea is irrelevant in statutory offences.
Answer: 2
54. Which of the following statements regarding actus reus are correct?
A. Actus reus may consist of a positive act, omission, or state of affairs.
B. Every omission is punishable under criminal law.
C. Actus reus must generally be voluntary.
D. Actus reus alone is always sufficient to impose criminal liability.
1. A and B only
2. A and C only
3. B and D only
4. A, C and D only
Answer: 2
55. In which case did the Supreme Court explain the distinction between culpable homicide and murder through the “degree of probability of death” test?
1. State of Andhra Pradesh v. Rayavarapu Punnayya
2. K.M. Nanavati v. State of Maharashtra
3. Virsa Singh v. State of Punjab
4. Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab
Answer: 1
56. Section 302 IPC corresponds to which provision of the BNS, 2023?
1. Section 101 BNS
2. Section 102 BNS
3. Section 103 BNS
4. Section 105 BNS
Answer: 3
57. Under IPC, adultery was punishable under Section 497. What is its status under BNS?
1. Punishment enhanced
2. Retained with modifications
3. Completely omitted following judicial developments
4. Converted into civil offence only under BNS
Answer: 3
58. Which punishment under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 reflects a shift towards restorative justice?
1. Death penalty
2. Community service
3. Life imprisonment
4. Fine only
Answer: 2
59. Which of the following is an essential ingredient of the offence under Section 149 BNS?
1. Actual waging of war must occur
2. Mere possession of ammunition
3. Public assembly of five persons
4. Preparation with intention to wage war against Government of India
Answer: 4
60. A, in good faith, permits a surgeon to operate on his child for removal of a stone, knowing the operation may likely cause death, but intending only the child’s cure. A’s liability is:
1. Guilty of murder
2. Guilty of attempt to murder
3. Guilty of culpable homicide
4. Protected under general exception
Answer: 4
61. The law of torts primarily deals with:
1. Public wrongs punishable by the State
2. Civil wrongs independent of contract
3. Breach of contractual promises only
4. Moral wrongs without legal consequences
Answer: 2
62. Which case is most closely associated with the maxim injuria sine damno?
1. Allen v.Flood
2. Ashby v. White
3. Gloucester Grammar School Case
4. Mayor of Bradford v. Pickles
Answer: 2
63. Which of the following statements are correct?
A. Injuria sine damno means infringement of a legal right without actual damage.
B. Damnum sine injuria means actual loss without infringement of a legal right.
C. Both maxims always give rise to tortious liability.
D. Gloucester Grammar School Case illustrates damnum sine injuria.
1. A, B and D only
2. A and C only
3. B and C only
4. A, B, C and D
Answer: 1
64. Match List-I with List-II.
|
List-I |
List-II |
|
A. Rylands v Fletcher |
I. Neighbour principle |
|
B. Donoghue v Stevenson |
II. Strict liability |
|
C. Ashby v White |
III. Injuria sine damno |
|
D. Allen v Flood |
IV. Damnum sine injuria |
- A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
- A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
- A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
- A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Answer: 1
65. The rule of strict liability was laid down in:
1. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
2. Rylands v. Fletcher
3. Donoghue v. Stevenson
4. Nichols v. Marsland
Answer: 2
66. Which of the following statements is correct regarding strict liability and absolute liability?
A. Strict liability admits exceptions such as act of God and plaintiff’s own default.
B. Absolute liability, as developed in India, does not admit the traditional exceptions to strict liability.
C. Absolute liability applies especially to hazardous or inherently dangerous industries.
D. Strict liability was first propounded in M.C. Mehta v Union of India.
1. A, B and C only
2. A and D only
3. B, C and D only
4. A, B, C and D
Answer: 1
67. The doctrine of absolute liability in Indian tort law was evolved in:
1. Kasturi Lal v. State of U.P.
2. State of Rajasthan v. Vidyawati
3. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
4. Donoghue v. Stevenson
Answer: 3
68. Given below are two statements:
Assertion A: The defence of act of God may be available under the rule in Rylands v Fletcher.
Reason R: The rule in Rylands v Fletcher is subject to certain recognised exceptions.
1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true, but R is false
4. A is false, but R is true
Answer: 1
69. Deficiency in service means:
1. Poor manufacturing only
2. Fault or inadequacy in quality of service
3. Criminal negligence only
4. Product resale defect
Answer: 2
70. Which of the following is presumed anti-competitive?
1. Tie-in arrangement
2. Cartel agreement
3. Refusal to deal
4. Exclusive supply agreement
Answer: 2
71. Which of the following statements are correct regarding compensation claims under Section 166?
A. It is based on fault liability.
B. Negligence generally needs to be proved.
C. It is identical to no-fault liability claim.
D. Legal representatives may file claims.
Options:
1. A, B and D only
2. A and C only
3. B and C only
4. All of the above
Answer: 1
72. Which of the following may amount to ‘unfair trade practice’ under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019?
A. False representation regarding quality
B. Misleading advertisement
C. Hoarding goods to increase price
D. Refusal to issue bill
Choose the correct answer:
1. A and B only
2. A, B and C only
3. A, B, C and D
4. B and D only
Answer: 3
73. Which of the following is NOT a ground for divorce under Section 13(1) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 after the 2019 amendment?
1. Cruelty
2. Desertion for not less than two years
3. Conversion to another religion
4. Leprosy
Answer: 4
74. Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, which one of the following grounds is available for judicial separation under Section 10 by reference to Section 13?
1. Only adultery
2. Only desertion
3. Any ground specified for divorce under Section 13(1)
4. Only mutual consent
Answer: 3
75. Which of the following is an essential condition for a valid adoption under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956?
1. The adopted child must always be below five years of age
2. The adoptive father must necessarily be unmarried
3. The person adopting must have capacity and right to take in adoption
4. Adoption must always be by a registered deed
Answer: 3
76. Under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, which of the following is a Class-I heir of a male Hindu dying intestate?
1. Brother
2. Father
3. Son of a predeceased son
4. Sister
Answer: 3
77. Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, a Hindu wife is entitled to live separately from her husband without forfeiting her claim to maintenance when the husband:
1. Has ceased to be Hindu by conversion
2. Has lost his employment
3. Has no ancestral property
4. Refuses to execute a maintenance agreement
Answer: 1
78. Under Muslim law, prompt dower is generally payable:
1. Only after dissolution of marriage
2. On demand by the wife
3. Only after the death of the husband
4. Only when fixed by court decree
Answer: 2
79. Mark the incorrect statement as per Muslim Law on Gifts.
A. A gift under Muslim law is called Hiba.
B. A gift must always be in writing to be valid.
C. Declaration by the donor is essential.
D. Acceptance by the donee is necessary.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. D Only
2. A and B Only
3. C Only
4. B Only
Answer: 4
80. A person creating a Waqf is called:
1. Mutawalli
2. Waqif
3. Nazir
4. Karta
Answer: 2
81. Stridhan under Hindu law refers to:
1. Joint family property
2. Agricultural land only
3. Husband’s ancestral property
4. Property gifted exclusively to a woman
Answer: 4
82. Arrange the following sources of Hindu law in the traditional order of authority:
A. Smriti
B. Shruti
C. Custom
D. Commentaries and Digests
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. B, A, D, C
2. A, B, C, D
3. B, D, A, C
4. C, B, A, D
Answer: 1
83. Under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, “human rights” are defined as rights relating to:
1. Life, liberty, equality and dignity of the individual
2. Liberty, property, religion and education
3. Equality, fraternity, sovereignty and dignity
4. Life, privacy, environment and development
Answer: 1
84. The National Human Rights Commission is constituted under which provision of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993?
1. Section 2
2. Section 3
3. Section 12
4. Section 21
Answer: 2
85. Which of the following is correct regarding the Chairperson of a State Human Rights Commission?
1. He must be a retired Chief Justice of India
2. He must be a former Judge of the Supreme Court only
3. He must be a former Chief Justice or Judge of a High Court
4. He must be a serving Governor of the State
Answer: 3
86. Section 14 of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 primarily deals with:
1. Appellate jurisdiction of the Tribunal
2. Tribunal’s jurisdiction over civil cases involving substantial environmental questions
3. Bar of jurisdiction of civil courts
4. Penalties for non-compliance with Tribunal orders
Answer: 2
87. Section 24 of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 prohibits:
1. Establishment of State Pollution Control Boards
2. Use of streams or wells for disposal of polluting matter
3. Constitution of the Central Pollution Control Board
4. Appeals to the National Green Tribunal
Answer: 2
88. Under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, air pollution control areas are declared by:
1. Central Pollution Control Board
2. State Government
3. National Green Tribunal
4. District Magistrate
Answer: 2
89. Section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 empowers the Central Government to:
1. Constitute Human Rights Courts
2. Take measures to protect and improve the environment
3. Establish State Biodiversity Boards
4. Register environmental NGOs
Answer: 2
90. Under the Biological Diversity Act, benefit sharing is primarily determined by:
1. State Pollution Control Board
2. National Biodiversity Authority
3. National Green Tribunal
4. Central Information Commission
Answer: 2
91. Arrange the following UN environmental events in chronological order:
A. Stockholm Conference
B. Rio Earth Summit
C. Johannesburg World Summit on Sustainable Development
D. Paris Agreement
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B, C, D
2. B, A, C, D
3. A, C, B, D
4. C, A, B, D
Answer: 1
92. Arrange the following human rights instruments in chronological order:
A. ICCPR
B. UDHR
C. CRPD
D. ICESCR
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. B, A, D, C
2. B, A, C, D
3. A, B, D, C
4. B, D, A, C
Answer: 1
93. Assertion (A): Copyright protects ideas, concepts, and methods themselves.
Reason (R): Copyright law protects only the expression of ideas, not the ideas themselves.
Options:
1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3. A is correct but R is not correct
4. A is not correct but R is correct
Answer: 4
94. Assertion (A): The Supreme Court of India struck down Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 as unconstitutional in Shreya Singhal v. Union of India.
Reason (R): The Court held that Section 66A violated the fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India.
Options:
1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Answer: 1
95. ‘Cyber Security’ is defined under which section of the Information Technology Act, 2000?
1. Section 2(ua)
2. Section 2(za)
3. Section 2(nb)
4. Section 2(tb)
Answer: 3
Comprehension (96-100)
Thus, the soul of natural justice is fair play in action and that is why it has received the widest recognition throughout the democratic world. In the United States, the right to an administrative hearing is regarded as essential requirement of fundamental fairness. And in England too it has been held that fair play in action demands that before any prejudicial or adverse action is taken against a person, he must be given an opportunity to be heard. The rule was stated by Lord Denning, M.R. in Schmidt v. Secretary of State for Home Affairs in these terms: ‘Where a public officer has power to deprive a person of his liberty or his property, the general principle is that it has not to be done without his being given an opportunity of being heard and of making representations on his own behalf.’ The same rule also prevails in other Commonwealth countries like Canada, Australia and New Zealand.”
96. In the United States, the right to an administrative hearing is considered:
1. A procedural formality
2. A constitutional amendment
3. An essential requirement of fundamental fairness
4. A judicial discretion
Answer: 3
97. Which principle requires that no adverse action be taken without hearing the affected person?
1. Res judicata
2. Audi alteram partem
3. Nemo dat quod non habet
4. Stare decisis
Answer: 2
98. Lord Denning’s statement primarily relates to:
1. Delegated legislation
2. Natural justice in administrative action
3. Judicial review of constitutional amendments
4. Criminal procedure
Answer: 2
99. Which countries are mentioned as following similar principles of natural justice?
1. India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka
2. Canada, Australia, New Zealand
3. France, Germany, Italy
4. Russia, China, Japan
Answer: 2
100. Who stated the quoted principle in the passage?
1. Lord Atkin
2. Justice Bhagwati
3. Justice Krishna Iyer
4. Lord Denning
Answer: 4
Sponsored: Practice 1000+ MCQ to master UGC NET Law Mock Test Series [June 2026]
Click here to boost your UGC NET Law preparation with expertly curated study material, PYQs, subject-wise MCQs, and essential exam resources.