The Haryana Public Service Commission (HPSC) conducted the Assistant District Attorney (ADA) Examination on 5 July 2026, from 10:00 AM to 12:00 PM, in pen-and-paper mode. Candidates can check the complete question paper below and use it for practice, revision, and understanding the exam pattern. You can also download the HPSC ADA Question Paper PDF for offline preparation.
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HPSC ADA 2026 Screening Test Official Exam Instructions
- Mode: Pen and Paper, OMR Sheet Based
- Type of Questions: Objective Type / Multiple Choice Questions
- Number of Questions: 100
- Maximum Marks: 100
- Time: 2 Hours
- Options: 5 options for each question: A, B, C, D and E
- For each wrong answer, one-fourth (0.25) mark shall be deducted.
- If a candidate is not attempting a question, they must choose option E.
HPSC ADA Screening Test Question Paper 2026
Question 1: Consider the following pairs:
1. Plea of irresistible impulse: Kopsch (1925) 19 Cri. App. Rep 50 (CA)
2. Defence of Drunkenness: Beard Case (1920) AC 4793.
3. Misconception of Fact : Poonai Fattemah (1869) 12 W.R. Cr. 7
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (A) Only one pair
- (B) Only two pairs
- (C) All three pairs
- (D) None of the pairs
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 2: Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In case of a person abetting an offence by intentionally aiding another to commit that offence, the charge of abetment against him would fail when the person alleged to have committed the offence is acquitted of that offence.
Statement II: To constitute the offence of abetment, it is necessary that the act abetted should be committed or that the effect to constitute the offence should be caused.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 3: Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Under Section 248 of BNS 2023 institution of a criminal proceeding must be for an offence or the false charge must be of an offence.Statement II: Under Section 248 of BNS, 2023, offence is not triable by a magistrate below the rank of a First Class Magistrate.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 4: Consider the following statements:
1. Affray may be committed in a public place and cannot be committed in a private place.
2. Affray is ordinarily punishable with imprisonment of either description for three months or fine upto ₹1,000 or both.
3. Affray may be sudden and unpremeditated.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (A) Only one statement
- (B) Only two statements
- (C) All three statements
- (D) None
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 5: Consider the following pairs:
1. Ross v. Parkyns (1875) : Existence of Partnership
2. Smith v. Bailey (1891) : Applicability of Holding Out Principle
3. Moss v. Elphick (1910) : Partnership at Will
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (A) Only one pair
- (B) Only two pairs
- (C) All three pairs
- (D) None of the pairs
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 6: Consider the following statements relating to Indian Partnership Act, 1932:
1. Under Section 30, a minor admitted to benefit can sue the firm but can not be sued for firm debt personally.
2. Goodwill is partnership property only if it is acquired for consideration or created by the firm effort.
3. If a partner carries any business of the same nature as and competing with that of the firm, he may not account for and pay to the firm any profit made by him in that business.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (A) Only one statement
- (B) Only two statements
- (C) All three statements
- (D) None
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 7: Consider the following pairs:
1. Scarf v. Jordan (1882): Election of liability between old and new firm
2. Chandrakant Manilal Shah v. CIT, IT (1991) 4: Partnership continuing after fixed term became partnership at Will
3. CIT v. Dwarkadas Khetan 1961 SC 680: Minor can not be full partner in firm
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (A) Only one pair
- (B) Only two pairs
- (C) All three pairs
- (D) None of the pairs
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 8: Consider the following statements:
1. A person may become a partner with another person in particular undertakings.
2. Every partner shall indemnify the firm for any loss caused to it by his fraudulence in the conduct of business of the firm.
3. The estate of a deceased partner is not liable to third parties for what may be done after his death by the surviving partner
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (A) Only one statement
- (B) Only two statements
- (C) All three statements
- (D) None
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 9: Consider the following pairs:
1. Suit for price : Available only when property in the goods has passed and buyer refuses to pay
2. Quality of goods : Includes their standard and condition
3. Fault : Means wrongful act or default
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (A) Only one pair
- (B) Only two pairs
- (C) All three pairs
- (D) None of the pairs
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 10: Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Sale by mercantile agent in possession with consent of owner passes good title even if the agent exceeds authority.
Statement II: A joint owner in sole possession by permission of co-owners can not pass the good title to the entire goods.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 11: Given below are two statements:
Statement I: An election to fill a vacancy in the office of Vice-President occurring by reason of his death, resignation or removal is held within six months of the occurrence of the vacancy.
Statement II: The person elected to fill the vacancy of the office of the Vice-President holds the office for the remainder of the term of his predecessor.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 12: Consider the following statements with regard to the Attorney-General of India:
1. To be appointed Attorney-General, one should have worked as a judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession for at least ten years.
2. He holds his office during the pleasure of the President of India.
3. In the performance of his duties he has the right of audience in the Supreme Court but not the High Courts.
4. It is his duty to give advice to the Government of India upon such legal matters as are referred to him.
How many of the statement(s) given above are correct?
- (A) Only one statement
- (B) Only two statements
- (C) Only three statements
- (D) All four statements
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 13: Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The Chief Election Commissioner of India cannot be removed from his office except in like manner and on like grounds as a judge of a High Court.
Statement II: An Election Commissioner cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 14: Given below are two statements:
Statement I: If the Council of States passes a resolution by a simple majority that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest that Parliament should make laws with respect to any matter enumerated in the state list, the Parliament can make laws with respect to that matter.
Statement II: A resolution for removal of the Vice President of India can be initiated in the Council of States alone.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 15: Consider the following statements:
A member of Parliament may be disqualified from being a member of the House.
1. If he voluntary gives up the membership of the political party on whose ticket he is elected to the House.
2. If he votes or abstains from voting in the House contrary to any direction given by his political party.
3. If any independently elected member joins any political party.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (A) Only one
- (B) Only two
- (C) All three
- (D) None
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 16: Consider the following statements:
1. The President of India can declare a national emergency when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion.
2. The President can declare a national emergency even before the actual occurrence of war or external aggression or armed rebellion if he is satisfied that there is an imminent danger of it.
3. The President cannot issue a proclamation of national emergency unless the decision of the Union Cabinet regarding the issuance of the same has been communicated to him in writing.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (A) Only one
- (B) Only two
- (C) All three
- (D) None
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 17: Given below are two statements:
Statement I: It is the duty of the Union to ensure that the Government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
Statement II: The receipt of a report from the Governor is not a necessary condition for the President of India to declare President’s Rule in a state.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 18: Consider the following statements:
1. A person cannot be appointed Governor more than once.
2. The Governor possesses diplomatic powers but lesser in comparison to the President.
3. The grounds on which a Governor may be dismissed are not laid down in the Constitution.
4. If the term of a Governor expires, he continues to hold office until his successor enters upon his office.
How many of the statement (s) given above are correct?
- (A) Only one statement
- (B) Only two statements
- (C) Only three statements
- (D) All four statements.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 19: Consider the following pairs:
1. Development of scientific temper: Directive Principle of State Policy
2. Rendering of National Service: Fundamental Duty
3. Free movement throughout the territory of India. : Fundamental Right
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (A) Only one pair
- (B) Only two pairs
- (C) All three pairs
- (D) None of the Pairs
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 20: Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Shri Bhagwat Dayal Sharma was the first Chief Minister of Haryana.
Statement II: He remained Chief Minister of Haryana from 1-11-1966 to 23-3-1971.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 21: Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The territorial designation Hariala mentioned in Skandapurana stands for Haryana.
Statement II: Delhi Museum Inscription of the reign of Muhammad Tughlaq (A.D. 1328) mentions the name Haryana.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 22: Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The Punjab Reorganization Bill was passed by the Parliament of 10th September, 1966.
Statement II: As a result of this Bill Haryana came into being as nineteenth State of India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 23: How many different 6-letter words (with or without meaning) can be constructed using all the letters of the word ‘TRADER’ so that each word has to start with T and end with R?
- (A) 9
- (B) 44
- (C) 24
- (D) 5
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 24: The average score of a batsman after his 60th innings was 56.4. After 90th innings, his average score increases by 9.6. What is his average score in the last 30 innings?
- (A) 45.9
- (B) 76.0
- (C) 64.5
- (D) 85.2
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 25: How many different 8-letter words (with or without meaning) can be constructed using all the letters of the word ‘LATHWORK’ so that each word has to start with K and end with H?
- (A) 723
- (B) 735
- (C) 714
- (D) 720
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 26: Let p be a two-digit number and q be the number consisting of same digits written in reverse order. If p × q = 4032, then what is the sum of p and q?
- (A) 109
- (B) 115
- (C) 132
- (D) 161
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 27: The letters from A to Z are numbered from 1 to 26 respectively. If BI = 58 and DE = 90, then what is AH equal to?
- (A) 36
- (B) 69
- (C) 70
- (D) 78
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 28: Consider the following statements about Haryana’s budget 2026-27:
1. The fiscal deficit has been projected at 2.66 percent in revised estimates 2025-26 and 2.65 percent in the Budget Estimates 2026-27.
2. In Budget estimates 2026-27, the revenue deficit has been projected at 0.87 percent as against 1.33 percent of GSDP in revised estimates 2025-26.
3. The Government’s revenue receipts are anticipated to increase by 14.63 percent in budget estimates 2026-27.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (A) Only one statement
- (B) Only two statements
- (C) All three statements
- (D) None
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 29: Consider the following persons:
1. Dr. Anukampa Garg
2. Smt. Sunita Chauhan
3. Smt. Bharti Saini
4. Smt. Deepika Khanna
Which of the above persons have been recently nominated as members of the Haryana State Commission for women?
- (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
- (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
- (C) 1, 3 and 4 only
- (D) All of the above
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 30: Consider the following Districts of Haryana:
1. Mahendragarh
2. Faridabad
3. Sirsa
4. Hisar
Which of the above were districts, when Haryana came into being on November 1,1966?
- (A) 1 and 2 only
- (B) 2 and 3 only
- (C) 3 and 4 only
- (D) 1 and 4 only
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 31: Consider the following statements:
1. Under Sunni Law, residuary heir (Asaba) can inherit even in the presence of all Quaranic sharers, provided the estate remains after distribution of fixed shares.
2. In Shia Law, the doctrine of Aul (proportionate reduction of shares) is applied in the same manner as in Sunni Law when the sum total of shares exceeds unity.
3. A murderer of the deceased is absolutely disqualified from inheritance under all Schools of Muslim Law irrespective of whether the act was intentional or accidental.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (A) Only one
- (B) Only two
- (C) All three
- (D) None
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 32: Consider the following pairs of Chief Ministers and the number of Terms:
1. Shri Bhagwat Dayal Sharma : 02 times as Chief Minister
2. Shri Bansi Lal : 04 times as Chief Minister
3. Shri Banarsi Das Gupta : 01 time as Chief Minister
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (A) Only one pair
- (B) Only two pairs
- (C) All three pairs
- (D) None of the pairs
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 33: Consider the following pairs of Assembly Constituency and their Districts:
1. Mulana: Ambala
2. Indri: Kurukshetra
3. Uklana: Jind
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (A) Only one pair
- (B) Only two pairs
- (C) All three pairs
- (D) None of the pairs
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 34: Consider the following pairs of Administrative Division and the District :
1. Gurgaon: Rewari2. Rohtak: Jind3. Hisar: Bhiwani
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (A) Only one pair
- (B) Only two pairs
- (C) All three pairs
- (D) None of the pairs
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 35: Consider the following pairs about component of expenditures in Haryana’s budget 2026-27 :
1. Economic Service : 21.01%
2. Social : 34.31%
3. Repayment of Debts : 29.23%
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (A) Only one pair
- (B) Only two pairs
- (C) All three pairs
- (D) None of the pairs
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 36: Consider the following pairs :
1. Central Soil and Salinity Research Institute (CSSRI) : Karnal
2. National Institute of Ayurveda (NIA) : Panchkula
3. National Brain Research Centre (NBRC) : Faridabad
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (A) Only one pair
- (B) Only two pairs
- (C) All three pairs
- (D) None of the pairs
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 37: Consider the following pairs :
1. Mela Baba Bhuman Shah : Sirsa
2. Mela Bhimeshwari Devi : Beri
3. Mela Kapal Mochan : Panchkula
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (A) Only one pair
- (B) Only two pairs
- (C) All three pairs
- (D) None of the pairs
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 38: Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Under the doctrine of res gestae, every statement made after the commission of an offence is automatically admissible if it relates to the same subject matter need not be contemporaneous or so immediately connected.
Statement II : Facts forming parts of the same transaction may be relevant even though they occurred at different times and places, provided continuity of action and purpose is established. In the light of the above Statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 39: Consider the following statements:
1. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, facts in issue and relevant facts alone are admissible, unless expressly excluded by law.
2. Any fact that appears morally persuasive to the court is admissible even if it is neither a fact in issue nor a relevant fact.
3. A confession caused by inducement, threat, or promise from a person in authority is irrelevant if it appears sufficient to give the accused grounds to suppose an advantage or avoid evil. How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (A) Only one statement
- (B) Only two statements
- (C) All three statements
- (D) None
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 40: In the expression 99 – 26 – 5H – 8H – 2H – 2H – 81 = –190 for which digit does the symbol H stand?
- (A) 5
- (B) 3
- (C) 7
- (D) 0
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 41: A bike travels from place X to place Y at an average speed of 1/4v km/hr, from place Y to place X at an average speed of 4v km/hr, from place X to place Y at an average speed of 2v km/hr, from place Y to place X at an average speed of 3v km/hr. Then the average speed of the bike for the entire journey –
- (A) is less than v km/hr
- (B) lies between v and 2v km/hr
- (C) lies between 2v and 3v km/hr
- (D) lies between 3v and 4v km/hr
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 42: A woman takes 5/8 time in rowing a certain distance downstream than upstream. What is the ratio of the speed in still water to the speed of current?
- (A) 16/3
- (B) 13/3
- (C) 3/13
- (D) 16/13
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 43: Replace the incorrect term by the correct term in the given sequence 2, 3, 8, 6, 8, 12, 16, 24, 32, 48, 64, 96 where odd terms and even terms follow the same pattern. Find out the correct term.
- (A) 2
- (B) 4
- (C) 12
- (D) 16
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 44: 3 friends visits the church on every 2nd, 28th and 10th day respectively. If all of them met at the church on a Tuesday, then on which day will all of them meet again?
- (A) Monday
- (B) Tuesday
- (C) Wednesday
- (D) Saturday
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 45: Given below are two Statements: Statement I: Bhartiya Janta Party is the largest party in both houses of current parliament. Statement II: Indian National Congress is not the second largest party in both houses of current parliament. In the light of the above Statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 46: Given below are two statements:
Statement I: “Aapki Beti Hamari Beti” scheme aims at improving the child sex ratio in Haryana.
Statement II: The scheme guidelines came into force from 22nd January, 2015. In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 47: Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The ancient site Rakhigarhi lies in the revenue jurisdiction of villages Rakhi Shahpur and Rakhi Khas.
Statement II: Rakhigarhi is a famous Vedic site in north India. In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 48: Given below are two statements:
Statement I: It is customary in Haryana that after Ghurchari the boy does not return his home without bride.
Statement II: When the Bhat is given, the boy’s or the girl’s father performs the ceremony of Aarta or Miina. In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 49: Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Teej or Hariyali Teej is a seasonal festival which is celebrated in the month of Sawan.
Statement II : Makar Sankranti is celebrated in the month of Kartika. In the light of the above Statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 50: Consider the following statements about Harihar Policy/Initiative of Haryana Govt:
1. This policy substituted the earlier ‘Jyotigramaya’ Policy notified in 2013.
2. This policy provides free school and higher education including technical education, skill development and industrial training and after care rehabilitation and financial assistance.
3. This policy provides jobs on compassionate ground and economically weaker section (EWS) status to the children covered in the policy guidelines. How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (A) Only one statement
- (B) Only two statements
- (C) All three statements
- (D) None
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 51: Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In a sale of specific or ascertained goods, the property in them is transferred to the buyer at such time as the parties to the contract intend it to be transferred.
Statement II: For the purpose of ascertaining the intention of the parties regard shall be had to the terms of the contract not the conduct of the parties. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 52: Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Right of lien is lost when the unpaid seller delivers the goods to a carrier without reserving the right of disposal of the goods.
Statement II : The seller shall not exercise his right of lien if he is in possession of the goods as agent or bailee for the buyer. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 53: Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Muslim Law does not recognize a joint family but recognize the distinction between movable and immovable property or ancestral and self-acquired property in Muslim Law of Inheritance.
Statement II: According to Sunni Law the expectant right of an heir-apparent can not pass by succession to his heir, nor can it pass by bequest to a legatee under his will. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 54: Given below are two statements:
Statement I : A gift of immovable property of which the donor is in actual possession is not complete, unless the donor physically departs from the premises with all his goods and chattels and the donee formally enters into possession.
Statement II : No physical departure or formal entry is necessary in the case of a gift of immovable property in which the donor and the donee are both residing at the time of the gift.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 55: Which one of the following will have minimum change in its value if 4 is added to both numerator and the denominator of the fractions 3/4, 1/3, 7/9, 1/4?
- (A) 3/4
- (B) 1/3
- (C) 7/9
- (D) 1/4
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 56: A person bought a car and sold it for ₹ 1,42,500. If he incurred a loss of 5%, then how much did he spend to buy the car?
- (A) ₹ 1,50,000
- (B) ₹ 2,50,000
- (C) ₹ 1,00,000
- (D) ₹ 50,000
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 57: In the series abba_a_ba__b_a_abbab, fill in the six blanks ( _ ) using one of the following given four choices such that the series follows a specific order.
- (A) bbbabb
- (B) aabaaa
- (C) babaaa
- (D) aabbaa
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 58: Consider the following statements regarding the meetings of a House in the Parliament:
1. Until Parliament by law otherwise provides, the quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament shall be one-tenth of the total number of members of the House.
2. If at any time during a meeting of a House there is no quorum, it shall be the duty of the Chairman or Speaker either to adjourn the House or to suspend the meeting until there is a quorum.
3. The proceedings in the Parliament shall be declared invalid if it is discovered that some person who was not entitled to vote, voted in the proceedings.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (A) Only one
- (B) Only two
- (C) All three
- (D) None
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 59: Consider the following pairs:
1. Robinson v. Graves (1861): Contract of work and labour
2. M. Ghosh v. State of Bihar (1961): Taking photograph is not contract of work and labour
3. Consolidated Coffee Ltd. v. Coffee Board (1980) : Auction-Sale How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (A) Only one pair
- (B) Only two pairs
- (C) All three pairs
- (D) None of the pairs
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 60: Consider the following statements:
1. There may be a contract of sale between one part-owner and another.
2. In case of sale of specified article under it’s patent name there is no implied condition as to its fitness for any particular purpose.
3. Unless otherwise agreed, the expenses of and incidental to putting the goods into deliverable state shall be borne by the buyer.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (A) Only one statement
- (B) Only two statements
- (C) All three statements
- (D) None
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 61: Given below are two statements:
Statement I : The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005, 8 females were in Class I heirs out of total 12 heirs. 16 females were added to the class I heirs by the amendment. Now, Class I contains a list of 16 persons out of these, 5 are males and 11 are females.
Statement II : Out of them, the son, the daughter, the widow and the mother are the only four primary heirs and they inherit because of their relationship to the propositors. In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 62: Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In a Mitakshara Coparcenary, the shares of coparceners are not deprived. But this fluctuating interest of the deceased coparcener is fixed by the explanation for purposes of it’s devolution.
Statement II: Explanation I to Section 6(3) of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 lays down that for the purposes of this section the interest of a Hindu Mitakshara coparcener shall be the share which he would have got, had there been a partition immediately before his death irrespective of the fact whether he was entitled to claim partition or not.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 63: Given below are two statements:
Statement I: ‘Community Service’ as a form of punishment is defined under Section 53 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
Statement II: ‘Community Service’ as a form of punishment is defined under Section 23 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 64: Consider the following statements:
1. Offence relating to printing or publishing any matter relating to Court proceedings without permission is given under Chapter “Of Offences relating to Documents and to Property Marks”.
2. The offences of Kidnapping, abduction or inducing woman to compel her marriage, etc. is given under Chapter “Of Offences affecting the Human Body”.
3. The offence of importation of girl or boy from foreign country is given under Chapter “Of Offences against Woman and Child.” How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (A) Only one statement
- (B) Only two statements
- (C) All three statements
- (D) None
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 65: Consider the following pairs:
1. Proximity Rule: State of Maharashtra v. Mohammad Yakub (1980)
2. Doctrine of Locus Poenitentiae: Malkiat Singh v. State of Punjab (1970)
3. The Equivocality Test: Abhayanand Mishra v. State of Bihar (1961)
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (A) Only one pair
- (B) Only two pairs
- (C) All three pairs
- (D) None of the pairs
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 66: Consider the following pairs:
1. Sangeet v. State of Haryana (2013) : ‘Balancing Test’ of Death sentence
2. Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab (1980) : ‘Rarest of rare Test’ of Death sentence
3. Shankar Kisanrao Khade v. State of Maharashtra (2013) : ‘Triple Test’ of Death sentence
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (A) Only one pair
- (B) Only two pairs
- (C) All three pairs
- (D) None of the pairs
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 67: Consider the following statements relating to assignment under Indian Contract Act, 1872.
1. In absence of any consideration between assignor and assignee, the assignment will be revocable by the assignor.
2. In absence of notice of assignment, debtor can make payment to the assignor and that will be a good discharge.
3. If the assignor makes more than one assignment of the same claim, the assignee who gives notice of the assignment to him first in point of time, will not have priority over the other, if the assignment to him came later in time.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (A) Only one statement
- (B) Only two statements
- (C) All three statements
- (D) None of the statements
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 68: Consider the following statements under Indian Contract Act, 1872.
1. Fraud is more or less an intentional wrong but misrepresentation may be quite innocent.
2. Fraud includes, the positive assertion, in a manner not warranted by the information of the person making it, of that which is not true, though he believes it to be true.
3. Misrepresentation is also tort but under Section 75 of Indian Contract Act, “a person who rightfully rescinds a contract is entitled to compensation for damage which he has sustained through the non-fulfilment of the contract”.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (A) Only one statement
- (B) Only two statements
- (C) All three statements
- (D) None
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 69: Given below are two statements:
Statement I: When a person at whose option a contract is voidable rescinds it, the other party thereto need not to perform any promise therein contained in which he is the promisor. The party rescinding a voidable contract, if he has received any benefit thereunder from another party to such contract, restores such benefit, so far as may be to the person from whom it was received.
Statement II : When an agreement is discovered to be void, or when a contract becomes void, any person who has received any advantage under such agreement or contract is bound to restore it or to make compensation for it to the person from whom he received it. In the light of the above statements,
choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 70: Consider the following pairs:
1. Justice Burrough : Richardson v. Mellish, (1824)
2 Bing 229, 252 2. Justice Lush : Currie v. Misa, (1875) LR 10 Ex 153
3. Chief Justice Shadial : Khan Gul v. Lakha Singh, AIR 1928 Lah 609
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (A) Only one pair
- (B) Only two pairs
- (C) All three pairs
- (D) None of the pairs
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 71: Consider the following pairs:
1. Continuing guarantee : Section 129, Indian Contract Act, 1872 2. Bailee’s particular Lien : Section 170, Indian Contract Act, 1872 3. Effect of Ratification : Section 198, Indian Contract Act, 1872
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (A) Only one pair
- (B) Only two pairs
- (C) All three pairs
- (D) None of the pairs
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 72: Given below are two statements:
Statement I : A delivers to B, a common carrier, a machine to be conveyed, without delay to A’s mill. Informing B that his mill is stopped for want of machine. B unreasonably delays the delivery of machine and A in consequence loses a profitable contract with the Government.
Statement II : On the basis of the above statement, A is entitled to receive from B, by way of compensation the extraordinary amount of profit which would have been made by the working of the mill on fulfilling of government contract.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 73: Consider the following pairs:
1. Krell v. Henry (1903): Doctrine of Frustration
2. Satyabrata Ghose v. Mugneeram Bangur & Co. (1954): Impossibility
3. Taylor v. Caldwell (1863): Destruction of subject matter of contract
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (A) Only one pair
- (B) Only two pairs
- (C) All three pairs
- (D) None of the pairs
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 74: Given below are two statements:
Statement I : When a contract has been broken a stipulation for increased interest from the date of default may be a stipulation by way of penalty.
Statement II : A person who enters into a contract with Government does not necessarily thereby undertake any public duties or duties to do an act in which the public are interested.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 75: Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Central Government shall prepare and notify a Witness Protection Scheme for the State, with a view to ensure protection of the witness.
Statement II : If a person is sentenced to death, the sentence shall direct that he be hanged by the neck till he is dead.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 76: Consider the following statements:
1. The best procedure of arrest is the submission to custody by words or action.
2. A police officer while making an arrest, shall actually touch or confine the body of the person to be arrested, unless there is a submission to the custody.
3. If the accused person forcibly resist the endeavour to arrest, or attempts to evade the arrest, police officer may cause the death of the accused if he has committed an offence punishable with death or life imprisonment.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (A) Only one statement
- (B) Only two statements
- (C) All three statements
- (D) None
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 77: Consider the following statements:
1. The Central Government may establish a Directorate of Prosecution in the State consisting of a Director of Prosecution and as many Deputy Director of Prosecution, as it thinks fit.
2. The Director of Prosecution shall establish a District Directorate of Prosecution in every district consisting of as many Deputy Directors and Assistant Directors of Prosecution, as it thinks fit.
3. The Directorate of Prosecution shall be headed by the Director of Prosecution who shall function under the administrative control of the Law Department in the State. How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (A) Only one statement
- (B) Only two statements
- (C) All three statements
- (D) None
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 78: Consider the following statements:
1. “Inquiry” means every inquiry, other than a trial, conducted under this Sanhita by Police Officer, Magistrate or Court.
2. “Investigation” includes all the proceedings under this Sanhita for the collection of evidence conducted by a Police Officer or by any person (other than Magistrate) who is authorized by a Magistrate in this behalf.
3. “Judicial Proceeding” includes any proceeding in the course of which evidence is or may be legally taken on oath.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (A) Only one statement
- (B) Only two statements
- (C) All three statements
- (D) None
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 79: Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Under Procedural Law, justice and fair play require that no one be punished without fair trial.
Statement II : A person might be under a thick cloud of suspicion of guilt, he might have been even caught red-handed, and yet he is not to be punished unless and until he is tried and adjudged to be guilty by a competent Court.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 80: Consider the following pairs:
1. Person once convicted or acquitted not to be tried for same offence. : Section 300 of the BNSS
2. Golden Rule of charge : Section 241 of the BNSS 3. Trial for more than one offence : Section 243 of the BNSS How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (A) Only one pair
- (B) Only two pairs
- (C) All three pairs
- (D) None of the pairs
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 81: Consider the following statements relating to effect of Set-Off:
1. The written statement shall not have same effect as a plaint in a cross suit under Order VIII, rule 6(3).
2. It would enable the Court to pronounce judgement in respect both of the original claim and of Set-Off.
3. It shall effect the lien of any pleader in respect of the costs payable of him under the decree. How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (A) Only one statement
- (B) Only two statements
- (C) All three statements
- (D) None
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 82: Consider the following statements relating to Section 35A of CPC, 1908:
1. Compensatory cost can be awarded even at the interlocutory stage.
2. Court of appeal or revisional court is not empowered to award compensatory cost.
3. The compensatory costs awardable are upto ₹ 50,000. How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (A) Only one statement
- (B) Only two statements
- (C) All three statements
- (D) None
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 83: Consider the following pairs:
1. Exclusion of Jurisdiction of Civil Court: Dhulabhai v. State of M.P. (1969)
2. Doctrine of res judicata: Satyadhyan Ghosal v. Deorjin Debi (1960)
3. Principle of Constructive res judicata : Workman v. Board of Trustees, Cochin Port Trust (1978) How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (A) Only one pair
- (B) Only two pairs
- (C) All three pairs
- (D) None of the pairs
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 84: Given below are two statements:
Statement I : In a legal Set-Off, it is necessary that the cross-demands must arise out of the same transaction. It can be claimed of as right and the court is bound to entertain and adjudicate upon it.
Statement II : In a legal Set-Off, it is necessary that the amount claimed as Set-Off must be legally recoverable and must not be time barred. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 85: Consider the following pairs:
1. Agreement to be filed and registered as suit: Order XXXVI, Rule – 3
2. Parties to be subject to Court’s Jurisdiction: Order XXXVI, Rule – 4
3. Value of subject matter shall be stated in agreement: Order XXXVI, Rule – 2. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (A) Only one pair
- (B) Only two pairs
- (C) All three pairs
- (D) None of the pairs
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 86: Consider the following pairs:
1. Commission of Scientific Investigation : Order XXVI, Rule 10A
2. Question objected to before the Commissioner : Order XXVI, Rule 10B
3. Commission for performance of a ministerial act : Order XXVI, Rule 10C. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (A) Only one pair
- (B) Only two pairs
- (C) All three pairs
- (D) None of the pairs
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 87: Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Where it appears to the Court that there is no sufficient ground for review, it shall reject the application under Order XLVII, Rule 4(2), CPC, 1908.
Statement II : Where the application for review is heard by more than one judge and the Court is equally divided, the application shall be rejected under Order XLVII, Rule (5), CPC, 1708. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 88: Given below are two statements:
Statement I : When an appeal is heard ex-parte and judgement is pronounced against the respondent, he may apply to the appellate Court to re-hear the appeal by showing sufficient cause under Order XLI, Rule 22, CPC, 1908.
Statement II : Where the evidence upon the record is sufficient, the appellate Court may after resettling the issues, if necessary, finally determine the suit under Order XLI, Rule 23, CPC, 1908. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 89: Consider the following statements:
1. The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam does not apply to any proceedings before an arbitrator.
2. Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam applies to affidavits presented to any Court.
3. Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam applies to all Court martial. How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (A) Only one statement
- (B) Only two statements
- (C) All three statements
- (D) None
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 90: Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Where a video recording is simultaneously stored in electronic form and transmitted or broadcast or transferred to another, each of the stored recording is primary evidence.
Statement II : Where an electronic or digital record is stored in multiple storage spaces in a computer resources, each such automated storage, excluding temporary files is primary evidence. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 91: Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Dying declaration is a statement made by person must relate to the cause of his death or the circumstances of the transaction which resulted in his death and not the cause of the death of someone else.
Statement II : Dying declaration is statement about either the death of the person who made the statement or cause of the death of someone else. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 92: Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 prescribes, opinion shall not be sufficient to prove marriage in prosecution for marrying again during lifetime of husband and wife.
Statement II : Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 prescribes, opinion shall be sufficient to prove marriage in prosecution for enticing or taking away or detaining with criminal intent a married woman. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 93: Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Under Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 a witness may be cross-examined as to a previous statement made by him in writing or reduced into writing and relevant to matter in question without such writing being shown to him.
Statement II : A witness may give oral evidence of statement made by other person about the contents of documents, if such statements are in themselves relevant facts.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 94: Consider the following pairs:
1. Burden of proving that case of accused within general exceptions in Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 : The Court may presume the absence of circumstances bringing the case within general exception.
2. The burden of proof in a suit or proceeding lies on : Always on prosecution.
3. The fact that any person was born during the continuance of a valid marriage between his mother and any man within 100 days after its dissolution the mother remaining unmarried. : Shall be conclusive proof that he is the legitimate child of man unless parties to marriage had no access. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (A) Only one pair
- (B) Only two pairs
- (C) All three pairs
- (D) None of the pairs
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 95: Consider the following statements:
1. The High Court may appoint Additional Session Judge to exercise Jurisdiction in a Court of Session.
2. The High Court may appoint Assistant Session Judge to exercise Jurisdiction in a Court of Session.
3. The Session Judge of one Session division may be appointed by the High court to be also an Additional Session Judge of another Session division. How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (A) Only one statement
- (B) Only two statements
- (C) All three statements
- (D) None
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 96: Consider the following pairs:
1. Petty Organised Crime: Cognizable and Non-bailable
2. Voluntarily causing hurt: Cognizable and bailable
3. Snatching: Non-cognizable and bailable
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (A) Only one pair
- (B) Only two pairs
- (C) All three pairs
- (D) None of the pairs
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 97: Consider the following statements:
1. The Court which passed a decree has power to execute such decree against any person or property outside the local limits of its jurisdiction under Section 39(4), CPC, 1908.
2. The Court which passed a decree may of its motion send it to execution to any Subordinate Court of competent jurisdiction under Section 39(3), CPC, 1908.
3. The Court which passed a decree may, on the application of the decree holder, send it for execution to another Court of competent jurisdiction under Section 39(1), CPC, 1908.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (A) Only one statement
- (B) Only two statements
- (C) All three statements
- (D) None
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 98: Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Temporary injunction is regulated by Order XXXIX, Rule 1 and 2 of CPC and it may be granted at any stage of a suit, but the plaintiff must show a fair prima facie case in support of his right.
Statement II: Perpetual injunction is an order governed by Specific Relief Act and it is granted at the final hearing of the suit and it finally determines the rights of the parties. It is granted after consideration of the merit of the case.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
- (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
- (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
- (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 99: Consider the following pairs:
1. Darya v. State of UP, AIR 1961 SC 1457 : Doctrine of res judicata
2. State of UP v. Nawab Husain, (1997) 2 SCC 806 : Constructive res judicata
3. Workman v. Board of Trustee, Cochin Port Trust, (1978) 3 SCC 119 : Constructive res judicata
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (A) Only one pair
- (B) Only two pairs
- (C) All three pairs
- (D) None of the pairs
- (E) Question not attempted
Question 100: Consider the following pairs:
1. “nemo debet bis vexari pro una et eadem causa”: An act of the Court shall prejudice no one
2. “interest reipublicae ut sit finish litium”: No man should be vexed twice for the same cause
3. “actus curiae neminem gravabit”: Judicial decision must be accepted as correct How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (A) Only one pair
- (B) Only two pairs
- (C) All three pairs
- (D) None of the pairs
- (E) Question not attempted
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