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Assam Judiciary Prelims Paper
2025

1. How many Constitution [Amendment] Acts have been enacted till date?

[a] 106

[b] 112

[c] 104

[d] 110

2. In which of the following Judgments, the Supreme Court has overturned the Asian Resurfacing Judgment which mandated that the interim orders passed by High Courts staying trials in civil and criminal cases would automatically expire after six months from the date of the order, unless extended by the High Courts?

[a] High Court Bar Association Delhi vs. Union of India

[b] High Court Bar Association Allahabad vs. Union of India

[c] High Court Bar Association Jabalpur vs. Union of India

[d] High Court Bar Association Lucknow vs. Union of India

3. In Supriyo vs. Union of India, a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court held that:

[a] Right to marry is a fundamental right

[b] Right to marry is not a fundamental right

[c] Right to marry is not a fundamental right but the right to recognition of a civil union is a fundamental right

[d] [b] and [c]

4. ‘X’ was accused of a criminal offence by ‘Y’ and the case has been in trial for 12 years, during which not a single witness was produced by the prosecution. Which of the following Article of the Constitution of India in this case can be alleged by X to have been violated?

[a] Article 12, Constitution of India

[b] Article 15, Constitution of India

[c] Article 21, Constitution of India

[d] Article 25, Constitution of India

5. The concept of ‘Judicial Review’ in the Indian Constitution is inspired by the Constitution of:

[a] USA

[b] UK

[c] Canada

[d] Australia

6. The Parliament becomes competent to make law on a matter enumerated in the State list only if the:

[a] Council of States passes a resolution supported by not less than two-thirds majority of the members present and voting that it is in the national interest that the Parliament should make law on such matter

[b] Council of States and House of the People, both pass a resolution that it is in the national interest that the Parliament should make law on such matter

[c] President gives the prior permission for such legislation

[d] Speaker of the House of the People in consultation with Chairman of the Council of State gives the prior permission for such legislation

7. Article 15 [1] of the Constitution of India prohibits discrimination against any citizen on the grounds of –

[a] Religion, race and caste only

[b] Caste, religion, sex and place of birth only

[c] Race, religion, caste and sex only

[d] Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them only

8. The concept of Passive Euthanasia has been carved from which Article of the Constitution of India?

[a] Article 21 

[b] Article 20 

[c] Article 22        

[d] Article 23

9. Articles 19(1)(f) and 31 were deleted and Article 300-A was inserted by the following Constitutional [Amendment] Act:

[a] 25th

[b] 44th

[c] 38th

[d] 42nd

10. The State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive, in terms of Article:

[a] Article 48

[b] Article 49

[c] Article 50

[d] Article 51

11. Which among the following is ‘tribal areas’ according to the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?

[a] All tribal areas in India

[b] The territories which immediately before 21.01.1972, were included in the tribal areas of Assam, other than those within the local limits of Shillong Municipality

[c] The tribal areas covered under Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India

[d] The tribal areas defined after 1972

12. How has the role of forensic teams changed under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 compared to the old Criminal Procedure Code, 1973?

[a] They are now optional

[b] Their use is now mandatory in certain cases

[c] They are no longer involved

[d] Their role has been completely eliminated

13. Which of the following provisions has been newly introduced under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 to promote the use of technology in criminal procedure?

[a] Confession to police made admissible

[b] Introduction of plea bargaining

[c] Recording of search and seizure via audio-video electronic means

[d] Arrest without warrant for all cognizable offences

14. Which of the following statements regarding the provision of ‘Zero FIR’ under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?

[a] It has been abolished to reduce misuse.

[b] It can only be filed at the police station where the offence occurred.

[c] It allows victims to file FIRs at any police station, regardless of jurisdiction.

[d] It applies only to offences against women.

15. Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, an e-FIR is valid only if:

[a] Signed within 3 days by informant

[b] Signed immediately online

[c] Acknowledged by police within 24 hours

[d] Filed in presence of magistrate

16. Community service under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 is available as:

[a] Mandatory for all offenders

[b] An alternative punishment for petty offences

[c] Reserved only for juvenile offenders

[d] Not provided

17. Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, if an accused is absconding and cannot be found, what is the maximum period of trial in absentia recording allowed?

[a] 60 days

[b] 90 days

[c] Unlimited if proclamation under Section 84 is complete

[d] Not allowed at all

18. As per the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the maximum period of police custody for a person arrested in a case triable by Sessions Court is:

[a] 15 days

[b] 30 days

[c] 60 days

[d] 90 days

19. As per the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a first-time offender not accused of a heinous crime must be released on bail if he has been in custody for :

[a] 1/2 of the maximum punishment

[b] 1/3 of the punishment

[c] 1/4 of the sentence

[d] 60 days

20. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 mandates that forensic evidence must be collected with videography in cases punishable with imprisonment of:

[a] 3 years and above

[b] 5 years and above

[c] 7 years and above

[d] All offences

21. What is the newly introduced offence under Section 84 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita?

[a] Indecent exposure

[b] Misuse of electronic communication

[c] Enticing the wife of another man for illicit intercourse

[d] Causing hurt to public servants

22. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, ‘snatching’ is:

[a] Covered under theft

[b] A new independent offence

[c] A form of robbery

[d] Not a criminal offence

23. Which of the following best describes the concept of ‘doli incapax’ as defined in Section 20 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita?

[a] The presumption that a person is incapable of committing a crime due to their young age.

[b] The legal principle that a person under the influence of alcohol or drugs is not criminally liable.

[c] The concept that a person cannot be held liable for an act if they were not aware of its consequences.

[d] The idea that certain actions are not considered criminal offences regardless of intent.

24. Under Section 28 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, a person under the age of what years cannot give valid consent unless the context suggest otherwise.

[a] 16 years

[b] 12 years

[c] 18 years

[d] 10 years

25. Which of the following is correct?

[a] the burden of proof that the accused was not insane at the time of commission of offence is on the prosecution

[b] the burden of proving that the accused was insane at the time of commission of offence is on the accused

[c] there is a rebuttable presumption of fact that accused was insane at the time of commission of the offence

[d] it is a matter of inference to be drawn by the court on the facts proved by the prosecution.

26. For a defence of intoxication, to escape criminal liability, as is provided under Section 23 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita or Section 85 of the Indian Penal Code, the intoxication :

[a] can be self-administered

[b] administered against his will or knowledge

[c] should not be self-administered

[d] all the above.

27. The term ‘grievous hurt’ under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita :

[a] Has been redefined to include acid attacks

[b] Excludes mental trauma

[c] Applies only to bodily pain

[d] Covers only physical deformities

28. ‘Z’ is carried off by a tiger. ‘A’ fires at the tiger knowing it to be likely that the shot may kill Z but not intending to kill Z, and in good faith intending Z’s benefit. A’s bullet gives Z a mortal wound. A shall be guilty of :

[a] Murder

[b] Culpable homicides not amounting to murder

[c] Causing death by accident

[d] No offence.

29. ‘A’ by falsely pretending to be in the civil service, intentionally deceives ‘Z’, and thus dishonestly induces ‘Z’ to let him have on credit goods for which he does not mean to pay. ‘A’ has committed:

[a] Cheating by personation

[b] Cheating

[c] Extortion

[d] Bribery

30. General exceptions are contained in:

[a] Chapter III of Indian Penal Code & Chapter II of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita

[b] Chapter IV of Indian Penal Code & Chapter IV of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita

[c] Chapter IV of Indian Penal Code & Chapter III of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita

[d] Chapter III of Indian Penal Code & Chapter IV of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita

31. A is arrested on charges of theft and confesses to the crime while in police custody. Later, in the presence of a Magistrate, A repeats the confession. Is A’s confession admissible under Section 23[2] of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam?

[a] Yes, because the confession was made before a Magistrate.

[b] No, because confessions made in police custody are inadmissible.

[c] Yes, but only the confession made before the Magistrate is admissible.

[d] No, because Section 23 does not allow any confessions during custody.

32. In which of the following recent cases, the Supreme Court brought officers under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances [NDPS] Act, 1985 within the ambit of ‘Police Officers’ under Section 25, of the Indian Evidence Act [Now, Section 23 of Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam]?

[a] Ram Singh vs. Central Bureau of Investigation

[b] Surjit Singh vs. Union of India

[c] Rajaram Jaiswal vs. State of Bihar

[d] Toofan Singh vs. State of Tamilnadu

33. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, which of the following is NOT a ground for admitting secondary evidence of a document?

[a] When the original is in the possession of the party against whom the document is sought to be proved

[b] When the original is lost or destroyed

[c] When the original is a public document

[d] When the original is illegible

34. Under the Evidence Act and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, fact means :

[a] factum probandum

[b] factum probans

[c] both factum probandum and factum probans

[d] none of the above.

35. Propositions under Evidence Act / Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam are :

I. Presumptions of facts are always rebuttable

II. Presumption of facts can be either rebuttable or irrebuttable

III. Presumption of law are always irrebuttable

IV. Presumption of law can be either rebuttable or irrebuttable

Which is true of the aforesaid propositions :

[a] I & III are correct but II & IV are incorrect

[b] I & IV are correct but II & III are incorrect

[c] II & III are correct but I & IV are incorrect

[d] II & IV are correct but I & III are incorrect

36. Which of the following section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam deals with examination-in-chief, cross-examination, re-examination?

[a] Section 145

[b] Section 137

[c] Section 142

[d] Section 146

37. To prove Call Details Record [CDR] of the mobile calls, conditions of which Section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam are to be fulfilled?

[a] Section 60

[b] Section 65A

[c] Section 70

[d] Section 63

38. The question is, whether ‘A’ committed a crime in Guwahati on a certain day. In answer to this question, which of the following facts is relevant ?

[a] That ‘A’ was out that day at Delhi

[b] That ‘A’ habitually commits crime of the nature involved in Guwahati?

[c] That ‘A’ often goes out of Guwahati and often goes to Delhi

[d] None of the above

39. Oral account of the contents of documents is admissible –

[a] when given by a person who has seen and read the document

[b] when given by a person who has seen but not read the document

[c] when given by a person to whom the document was read over

[d] is not admissible in either of the above cases

40. Find out the correct one from the following four choices: The principle of res gestae as a rule of evidence is embedded in :

[a] Section 6 of the Evidence Act and Section 5 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam

[b] Section 5 of the Evidence Act and Section 4 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam

[c] Section 4 of the Evidence Act and Section 6 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam

[d] Section 6 of the Evidence Act and Section 4 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam

41. Under which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure can a suit be dismissed for the plaintiff’s failure to pay court fees?

[a] Order 7 Rule 11

[b] Order 7 Rule 10

[c] Order 7 Rule 13

[d] Order 33

42. Under which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure can a court review its own order?

[a] Order 47

[b] Order 43

[c] Order 45

[d] Order 41

43. Which of the following deals with the power of the Supreme Court to transfer suits, etc. in the Code of Civil Procedure?

[a] Section 22

[b] Section 24

[c] Section 25

[d] Section 26

44. Where the summons to the defendant[s] is returned unserved and the plaintiff fails to apply for issuance of fresh summons to the defendant[s] within seven days of the return, the suit of the plaintiff is liable to –

[a] Dismissed under Order 9 Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure

[b] Rejected under Order 7 Rule 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure

[c] Dismissed under Order 9 Rule 5 of the Code of Civil Procedure

[d] Either [a] or [b] or [c]

45. Under which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, a pleader has a duty to inform the court about the death of parties:

[a] Order 22 Rule 1

[b] Order 22 Rule 4A

[c] Order 22 Rule 8

[d] Order 22 Rule 10A

46. The time schedule contained Order 8 Rule 1, Code of Civil Procedure is to be –

[a] Followed as a rule and departure therefrom shall also be a rule

[b] Followed as a rule and departure therefrom would be an exception

[c] Followed as a rule and there is no scope for any departure therefrom

[d] Followed as an absolute rule as it imposes an embargo on the power of the court to extend the time

47. When the communication of a proposal is complete under the Indian Contract Act :

[a] When it do not comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made.

[b] When it comes to the knowledge of another person that some communication was made to the concerned person.

[c] When it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is not made.

[d] When it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made.

48. Who are competent to contract as per the Indian Contract Act :

[a] Every person is competent to contract who is of the age of majority according to the law to which he is subject, and who is of sound mind and is not disqualified from contracting by any law to which he is subject.

[b] Every person is competent to contract who is of the any age and who is of sound mind and is not disqualified from contracting by any law to which he is subject.

[c] Every person is competent to contract who is of the age of majority according to the law to which he is subject.

[d] Every person is competent to contract who is of the age of majority according to the law to which he is subject, and who is of sound mind.

49. If new contract is substituted in place of an existing contract, then it is called –

[a] Waiver

[b] Remission

[c] Novation

[d] Alteration

50. If the consent was caused by misrepresentation or by silence, fraudulent within the meaning of section 17, the contract, nevertheless, if the party whose consent was so caused had the means of discovering the truth with ordinary diligence:

[a] may be voidable

[b] may not be not voidable

[c] is voidable

[d] is not voidable

51. Contingent contracts to do nor not to do anything, if a specified uncertain event happened within a fixed time, become ________, if, at the expiration of the time fixed, such event has not happened, or if, before the time fixed, such event becomes impossible :

[a] Bad

[b] Valid

[c] Void

[d] Voidable

52. Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, what does the term ‘actionable claim’ refer to?

[a] A claim to an immovable property.

[b] A claim to a debt or other beneficial interest in movable property, not in the possession of the claimant.

[c] A claim for damages.

[d] A claim for specific performance of a contract.

53. The basic ingredients of the doctrine of lis pendens are:

[a] The suit should be collusive

[b] Property should have been transferred or otherwise dealt with

[c] A litigation should be pending in a court of competent jurisdiction

[d] The suit must not be related to a specific immovable property

54. The doctrine of part performance is dealt in:

[a] Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act

[b] Section 53 of the Transfer of Property Act

[c] Section 51 of the Transfer of Property Act

[d] Section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act

55. The registration of the gift of immovable property is:

[a] Compulsory

[b] Optional

[c] Compulsory in relation to ancestral property

[d] Depends on the Court

56. Rule of lis pendens is applicable to suits for specific performance of contracts to transfer immovable property. The statement is:

[a] True

[b] False

[c] Partly true

[d] None of the above

57. The principle of ‘volenti non fit injuria’ in tort law means:

[a] The thing speaks for itself

[b] To a willing person, no injury is done.

[c] Let the master answer

[d] He who acts through another, acts himself.

58. The ‘neighbour principle’ establishing a duty of care, is most famously defined in which case?

[a] Palsgraf v. Long Island Railroad

[b] Donoghue v. Stevenson

[c] Rylands v. Fletcher

[d] Winterbottom v. Wright

59. Which Indian State has the largest forest cover by area?

[a] Madhya Pradesh

[b] Chhattisgarh

[c] Arunachal Pradesh

[d] Maharashtra

60. The ‘State of Unity’, the world’s tallest statue, is located on the banks of which river?

[a] Ganga

[b] Yamuna

[c] Narmada

[d] Godavari

61. What is the name of the world’s largest active volcano?

[a] Mount Etna

[b] Mount Vesuvius

[c] Mauna Loa

[d] Mount Fuji

62. Where is the Indira Point, the southernmost tip of India, located?

[a] Great Nicobar Island

[b] Little Andaman

[c] Lakshadweep

[d] Rameswaram

63. The Keibul Lamjao National Park, a floating national park, is in which state?

[a] Arunachal Pradesh

[b] Nagaland

[c] Manipur

[d] Sikkim

64. What is the name of India’s first indigenously developed aircraft carrier?

[a] INS Vikrant

[b] INS Arihant

[c] INS Virat

[d] INS Chakra

65. Which planet has the most moons as of 2025?

[a] Jupiter

[b] Saturn

[c] Uranus

[d] Neptune

66. Which Indian became the first woman to command a fighter squadron?

[a] Bhawana Kanth

[b] Avani Chaturvedi

[c] Shaliza Dhami

[d] Mohana Singh

67. Who was the first Indian to win an individual Olympic gold medal?

[a] Abhinav Bindra

[b] Leander Paes

[c] Neeraj Chopra

[d] Karnam Malleswari

68. Which Indian state is famous for the traditional boat race ‘Vallam Kali’?

[a] Karnataka

[b] Tamil Nadu

[c] Kerala

[d] Odisha

69. Which state recently became the first to implement the Uniform Civil Code [UCC]?

[a] Goa

[b] Gujarat

[c] Himachal Pradesh

[d] Uttarakhand

70. Which of the following was NOT a cause of the 1857 Sepoy Mutiny?

[a] The Doctrine of Lapse

[b] The introduction of the Enfield rifle

[c] The annexation of Oudh

[d] The establishment of the Indian National Congress

In the FOUR questions given below out of four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given word / sentence.

71. If someone is ‘under the weather’, the person is:

[a] Happy and cheerful

[b] Feeling ill

[c] Experiencing bad weather

[d] Above the clouds

72. The idiom ‘Cost an arm and a leg’ means:

[a] Something is very inexpensive

[b] Something is very expensive

[c] Something is of poor quality

[d] Something is a good deal.

73. The idiom ‘to catch a tartar’ means:

[a] To trap wanted criminal with great difficulty

[b] To catch a dangerous person

[c] To meet with disaster

[d] To deal with a person who is more than one’s match

74. The idiom ‘to make clean breast of’ means:

[a] To gain prominence

[b] To praise oneself

[c] To confess without reserve

[d] To destroy before it blooms

In the THREE questions given below, out of four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given word / sentence.

75. A disease of mind causing an uncontrollable desire to steal

[a] Schizophrenia

[b] Claustrophobia

[c] Kleptomania

[d] Megalomania

76. The custom or practice of having more than one husband at same time:

[a] Polygyny

[b] Polyphony

[c] Polyandry

[d] Polychromy

77. One who is fond of fighting:

[a] Bellicose

[b] Aggressive

[c] Belligerent

[d] Militant

For the next FIVE questions below, read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. Any error of punctuation is to be ignored.

78. Sentence: A lot of travel delay is caused due to the inefficiency and lack of good management on behalf of the railways.

[a] A lot of travel delay is caused

[b] due to the inefficiency and lack of good management

[c] on behalf of the railways.

[d] No error.

79. Sentence: An Indian ship laden with merchandise got drowned in the Pacific Ocean.

[a] An Indian ship

[b] laden with merchandise

[c] got drowned in the Pacific Ocean.

[d] No error.

80. Sentence: All the furnitures have been sent to the new house located in a village.

[a] All the furnitures have been

[b] sent to the new house

[c] located in a village.

[d] No error

81. Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the word: ‘NADIR’ –

[a] Modernity

[b] Zenith

[c] Liberty

[d] Progress

82. Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the word: ‘EPILOGUE’ –

[a] Dialogue

[b] Prelude

[c] Post script

[d] Epigram

83. What is the average of the first five prime numbers?

[a] 3

[b] 5.6

[c] 6

[d] 5.8

84. The age of 5 people are in proportion 2:3:4:10:11. If their average age is 18, find the average age of the eldest of them.

[a] 22

[b] 11

[c] 44

[d] 33

85. There are a total of 1236 students in a school. If the boy to girl ratio is 1 : 2, find the difference between number of girls and boys.

[a] 412

[b] 824

[c] 241

[d] 214

86. Pointing to a photograph Nirmali says, ‘He is the son of the only son of my grandfather.’ How is the man in the photograph related to Nirmali?

[a] Brother

[b] Uncle

[c] Cousin

[d] Father

87. Veena who is the sister-in-law of Ashok, is the daughter-in-law of Kalyani. Dheeraj is the father of Sudeep who is the only brother of Ashok. How Kalyani is related to Ashok?

[a] Mother-in-law

[b] Aunt

[c] Wife

[d] None of these

88. A map has Rs. 480 in the denominations of one-rupee notes, five-rupee notes and ten-rupee notes. The number of notes of each denomination is equal. What is the total number of notes?

[a] 45  

[b] 60  

[c] 75  

[d] 90

89. A is 3 years older to B and 3 years younger to C, while B and D are twins. How many years older is C to D?

[a] 2

[b] 3

[c] 6

[d] 12

90. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.

[a] 5, 6, 3, 2, 4, 1

[b] 5, 6, 4, 2, 3, 1

[c] 5, 6, 2, 3, 4, 1

[d] 6, 5, 4, 2, 3, 1

91. তলত দিয়া থকা শব্দসমূহৰ পৰা ‘অসম্ভৱ’ ৰ বিপৰীতাৰ্থক শব্দ বাছি উলিয়াওক:

[a] অশক্য 

[b] অনুশোচনা 

[c] পৰ্যাপ্ত 

[d] অশোক

92. ‘সি এটা ধনীয়া মানুহ’ – এই বাক্য খণ্ডৰ অৰ্থ হৈছে—

[a] সি এটা ধনী লোক।

[b] সি বৰ এজন মানুহ।

[c] সি এটা মৰ্যাদাপূৰ্ণ।

[d] সি এটা ধন।

93. তলৰ কোনটো শব্দ সঠিকভাৱে গঠিত?

[a] তথ্য + তত্ত্ব = তত্ত্ব

[b] জন্ম + অন্ধ = জন্মান্ধ

[c] সম + ঈশ্বৰ = সমেশ্বৰ

[d] নদী + অশু = নদাশু

94. তলৰ কোনটো শব্দ ‘অহংকাৰ’ ৰ সমার্থক শব্দ নহয়?

[a] অহংকা 

[b] গর্ব 

[c] অহং 

[d] দৰ্প

95. ‘কদাকার’ শব্দৰ বিপৰীতাৰ্থক শব্দ বাছি উলিয়াওক:

[a] সুন্দৰ 

[b] সমস্তুত 

[c] অসৎ 

[d] চঞ্চল

96. ‘অগ্ন্যুৎপাত’ – তলৰ শব্দসমূহৰ পৰা শব্দ আৰু তাৰ অৰ্থ বাছি উলিয়াওক:

[a] সাধাৰণ আগ্নেয়গিৰি মান

[b] বিস্ফোৰণ উঠাৰ আগ্নেয়গিৰি মান

[c] উঠি অহা লাভা

[d] ধৰ্ম্মীয় পদ্ধতিত যজ্ঞ

97. ভাৰতীয় সাক্ষ্য অধিনিয়মৰ কোনটো ধাৰাত মৃত্যুকালীন ঘোষণাৰ বিষয়ে উল্লেখ আছে?

[a] ধাৰা 32

[b] ধাৰা 28

[c] ধাৰা 26

[d] ওপৰৰ এটাও নহয়

98. ‘গোট-গৰু’ – তাতুলা চাবৰ অৰ্থ হৈছে—

[a] মূৰ্খ লোক

[b] এটা গৰু

[c] গৰু চোৰানি

[d] গাঁওল

99. মানুহজনৰ বৰ হাত দীঘল – এই বাক্য খণ্ডৰ অৰ্থ কি?

[a] মানুহজনৰ হাত দুটা বৰ দীঘল।

[b] মানুহজন বৰ দুষ্ট।

[c] মানুহজনে চুৰি কৰোঁতে ধৰা।

[d] মানুহজন বৰ স্বাৰ্থপৰ।

100. তলত দিয়া শব্দৰ চাবৰ কোনটো অৰ্থ অযুক্ত?

[a] নষ্টপাত কুশল : দণ্ডধাৰ

[b] দ্ৰৱ পিতা : বেছি পৰিমাণে

[c] ক্লান্তিকৰ : সমানীয়ৰ দৰে লোক

[d] মেঘপাক : পান কৰা কথা বা কৰ্ম

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