CLAT PG Mock Legal Practice Questions April 2026

Legal Bites presents the CLAT PG Mock Legal Practice Questions – April 2026, carefully designed to sharpen your preparation strategy and elevate your legal aptitude for the upcoming examination. In today’s highly competitive landscape, where question patterns are becoming increasingly dynamic and judgment-centric, consistent practice with well-curated, concept-driven questions is indispensable.

CLAT PG Mock Legal Practice Questions

April 2026

No. of questions: 120

I. The law is a balance of rights and responsibilities. ‘A right is an interest recognised and protected by the rule of law,’ says Salmond. It is a conflict of interest, respect for which is a responsibility, and disrespect for which is a sin.’ Except in a few cases under general exclusions, breach of duty or disrespect must be prosecuted. Duguit, on the other hand, concludes that “no one has any other right except to execute his duty constantly.” In his opinion, the law is simply a manifestation of each individual’s tasks as a member of the social organisation to promote social unity. Like Prof. Kelson, the proponent of the Pure Theory of Law, several jurists believe that there is no such thing as a legal right. Roseau’s balanced viewpoint is that humans were born free, but they are enslaved everywhere. On closer examination, these shackles appear to be self-imposed by males in society and as members of a democracy. The restraint on one’s right is what the chains refer to. Whatever shape it may be named, the total of all bonds forms law. These restraints assist a society’s shared cause for cohesiveness and toward a common purpose.

The majority of the substratum of law is made up of rights and responsibilities, which are intertwined. In the West’s eyes, if the law provides a right, then there must be a matching obligation, but who bears it? To do so, one must research the good features that different authors have handled differently. In summary, the essential qualities for this research are: I the beneficiary in whom the right resides, ii) the person burdened with matching obligation, iii) the subject matter of the right, and iv) the act or forbearance giving rise to the violation. Furthermore, the right may be discussed in a broader sense, with the right being divided into four categories: I right, ii) liberties, iii) power, and iv) immunity. As a result, each type of right should have a correlative, such as i) Duties ii) No Right iii) Liabilities; and iv) Disabilities.

[Extracted from V. Vinayak Dev, “A Study on Jurisprudential Aspects of Fundamental Duties and Their Enforceability,” Indian Journal of Integrated Research in Law, Volume II, Issue I (ISSN: 2583-0538)].

1. According to Salmond, a right is:

A. A moral privilege granted by society

B. An interest recognised and protected by the rule of law

C. A duty imposed by the sovereign

D. A social function without legal backing

Answer: B

2. Duguit’s theory primarily emphasises:

A. Individual liberty over social welfare

B. Rights as natural entitlements

C. Duties as the basis of law and social solidarity

D. Absolute sovereignty of the State

Answer: C

3. Which jurist is associated with the view that legal rights do not independently exist?

A. Salmond

B. Roscoe Pound

C. Hans Kelsen

D. Austin

Answer: C

4. Which jurist is most closely associated with the Pure Theory of Law?

A. Duguit

B. Rousseau

C. Salmond

D. Hans Kelsen

Answer: D

5. According to the passage, the Western legal understanding is that:

A. Every legal right has a corresponding obligation.

B. Every duty exists without a corresponding right.

C. Rights are superior to obligations.

D. Duties arise only from morality.,,

Answer: A

II. Adopted in 1945, the UN Charter is the founding document of the United Nations, and its roots are deeply American. President Franklin D. Roosevelt helped shape its principles through the 1941 Atlantic Charter with Winston Churchill, envisioning a postwar world built on collective security rather than perpetual war.

When the Charter was presented in San Francisco, the U.S. Senate ratified it by an overwhelming 89-2 vote. This was not idealistic globalism, but calculated national security strategy – designed to create rules strong enough to restrain aggression before U.S. troops were pulled into another catastrophic conflict.

Legally, the Charter is a treaty incorporated into U.S. law through Senate ratification and the President’s signature. Functionally, it sets out shared rules for how states interact, defines strict limits on the use of military force and creates institutions (the Security Council, the General Assembly and the International Court of Justice) to manage disputes.

[Better World Campaign, What Is the United Nations Charter and Article 2?]

6. Which two leaders played a key role in shaping the principles that later influenced the UN Charter through the Atlantic Charter?

A. Roosevelt and Stalin

B. Churchill and Attlee

C. Roosevelt and Churchill

D. Truman and Churchill

Answer: C

7. The Atlantic Charter was signed in:

A. 1939

B. 1941

C. 1945

D. 1949

Answer: B

8. The United Nations Charter was presented and signed at which city?

A. New York

B. Geneva

C. Washington D.C.

D. San Francisco

Answer: D

9. Which of the following institutions is NOT established under the UN Charter?

A. Security Council

B. General Assembly

C. International Court of Justice

D. International Criminal Court

Answer: D

10. Assertion (A): The UN Charter is often regarded as the constitutional document of the international community.

Reason (R): It establishes international institutions and regulates the conduct of states, particularly concerning the use of force.

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C. A is true, but R is false.

D. A is false, but R is true.

Answer: A

III. Territorial asylum refers to asylum granted by a State within its own territory to persons fleeing persecution or danger. It is regarded as an aspect of State sovereignty. The Convention on Territorial Asylum, adopted at Caracas on 28 March 1954, affirmed this principle. Article 1 of the Convention provides that every State has the sovereign right to admit into its territory any persons it considers appropriate, and the exercise of this right cannot be challenged by another State.

The principle was further reinforced by the Declaration on Territorial Asylum adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 1967. Article 1 of the Declaration states that asylum granted by a State, in the exercise of its sovereignty, to persons entitled to seek protection under Article 14 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, must be respected by all other States.

In addition, Article 3 of the Declaration embodies the principle of non-refoulement. It provides that no person seeking or enjoying asylum should be rejected at the frontier, returned, or expelled to a territory where there are substantial grounds for fearing persecution or threats to life, liberty, or physical integrity. This safeguard has also been incorporated into Articles 31, 32, and 33 of the 1951 Convention Relating to the Status of Refugees, which protect refugees against penalties for illegal entry, arbitrary expulsion, and forcible return to territories where they may face persecution.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Soumya Singh, “Asylum”, International Journal of Legal Developments and Allied Issues, World Human Rights Review Edition, Vol. 3, Issue 3, May 2017, The Law Brigade (Publishing) Group]

11. Territorial asylum refers to:

A. Asylum granted in embassies and consulates

B. Asylum granted by a State within its own territory

C. Asylum granted by international organizations

D. Asylum granted on the high seas

Answer: B

12. The Convention on Territorial Asylum was adopted at Caracas in:

A. 1945

B. 1948

C. 1951

D. 1954

Answer: D

13. Which of the following is NOT a protection generally associated with the principle of non-refoulement?

A. Protection against return to persecution

B. Protection against expulsion to danger

C. Protection against rejection at the frontier

D. Automatic grant of citizenship

Answer: D

14. In the Asylum Case (Colombia v. Peru, 1950), the International Court of Justice dealt with:

A. Territorial asylum

B. Diplomatic asylum

C. Refugee status determination

D. Extradition treaty interpretation

Answer: B

15. The immediate context for India’s decision to grant asylum to the Dalai Lama was:

A. Chinese crackdown in Lhasa

B. Sino-Indian War

C. Korean War

D. Formation of the People’s Republic of China

Answer: A

IV. When the Prosecutor initiates an investigation proprio motu or following a referral by a State Party, the Prosecutor is required to notify the United Nations Security Council and allow it a period of six months to determine whether an act of aggression has occurred. If the Security Council makes such a determination within that period, the Prosecutor may proceed with the investigation of the crime of aggression in the same way as investigations into the other core international crimes under the Rome Statute.

However, if the Security Council does not make a determination within six months, the Prosecutor is not barred from proceeding. In such circumstances, the investigation may continue only with the authorisation of the ICC’s Pre-Trial Division. Thus, the Court’s jurisdiction over the crime of aggression does not depend upon an affirmative determination or authorisation by the Security Council. This framework, established under Article 15 bis of the Rome Statute, reflects a consent-based jurisdictional regime that limits the Security Council’s control while preserving the Court’s ability to exercise jurisdiction over acts of aggression.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Crime of Aggression Project, “The ICC and the UN Security Council,” Global Campaign for Ratification and Implementation of the Kampala Amendments on the Crime of Aggression.]

16. If the Security Council determines that an act of aggression has occurred within six months, the Prosecutor:

A. Must still seek authorisation from the Pre-Trial Division

B. May proceed with the investigation in the ordinary manner

C. Must seek approval from the General Assembly

D. Loses jurisdiction over the matter

Answer: B

17. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

A. The Security Council is informed when an investigation is initiated proprio motu.

B. The Security Council has six months to determine the existence of an act of aggression.

C. Without Security Council authorisation, the ICC can never investigate aggression.

D. The Pre-Trial Division may authorise the investigation if the Security Council remains inactive.

Answer: C

18. The six-month period provided to the Security Council begins when:

A. The Prosecutor informs the Security Council

B. A State Party files a referral

C. The crime of aggression occurs

D. The General Assembly adopts a resolution

Answer: A

19. Article 15 bis applies where the situation is:

A. Referred by a State Party or initiated proprio motu.

B. Referred only by the Security Council.

C. Referred only by a non-State Party.

D. Referred only by the General Assembly.

Answer: A

20. Which organ elects the non-permanent members of the Security Council?

A. Security Council

B. Secretary-General

C. General Assembly

D. International Court of Justice

Answer: C

V. The doctrine of arbitrariness as a facet of Article 14, capable of being used to test and strike down legislation, received its most authoritative affirmation in Shayara Bano v. Union of India. A Constitution Bench of this Court held that Triple Talaq was manifestly arbitrary, and in doing so, brought to rest any remaining divergence or controversy about whether manifest arbitrariness is a valid ground to invalidate legislation. In paragraph 84, the Court observed:

“Arbitrariness in legislation is very much a facet of unreasonableness in Articles 19(2) to (6), as has been laid down in several judgements of this Court…therefore, there is no reason why arbitrariness cannot be used in aforesaid sense to strike down legislation under Article 14 as well”

……………….Most recently, in Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union of India, the validity of the Electoral Bond Scheme and provisions of the Finance Act, 2017 were challenged. A Constitution Bench of this Court held them to be unconstitutional and struck them down, reaffirming that manifest arbitrariness remains a ground available to Courts to invalidate legislation under Article 14.

[This extract is taken from Anurag Krishna Sinha v. State of Bihar & Anr., (Civil Appeal No. 13581 of 2025)]

21. The doctrine of manifest arbitrariness as a ground to invalidate legislation under Article 14 was authoritatively affirmed in:

A. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

B. Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India

C. Shayara Bano v. Union of India

D. Minerva Mills v. Union of India

Answer: C

22. In Shayara Bano v. Union of India, the Court struck down:

A. Triple Talaq

B. Electoral Bond Scheme

C. Section 377 IPC

D. Section 66A IT Act

Answer: A

23. According to Shayara Bano, arbitrariness in legislation is a facet of:

A. Judicial review only

B. Federalism

C. Separation of powers

D. Unreasonableness under Articles 19(2) to 19(6)

Answer: D

24. The doctrine of manifest arbitrariness primarily strengthens which constitutional guarantee?

A. Equality before Law

B. Freedom of Speech

C. Freedom of Religion

D. Constitutional Remedies

Answer: A

25. Consider the following statements regarding Article 14:

1. Manifest arbitrariness is a facet of Article 14.

2. Manifest arbitrariness can be invoked only against executive action.

3. The Electoral Bond Scheme was struck down partly on grounds of arbitrariness.

Options:

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

VI. However, the manner of this transformation is the pivot upon which this entire case turns. In her initial written complaint, which set the criminal law in motion, she explicitly stated that the “marriage” was solemnised solely through the execution of signatures on a non-judicial stamp paper. There was no mention of the sacred fire, the Saptapadi, or the exchange of garlands; there was only the cold ink of a secular contract.

[Extracted from Deep Dey v. State of West Bengal & Anr. (CRR 2190 of 2017)]

26. Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, a Hindu marriage is generally solemnised in accordance with:

A. Registration before the Registrar only

B. Customary rites and ceremonies of either party

C. Execution of a contract on stamp paper

D. Filing an affidavit before a Notary

Answer: B

27. Which of the following ceremonies is commonly regarded as an essential ceremony where applicable under Hindu law?

A. Registration of marriage

B. Exchange of rings

C. Saptapadi

D. Execution of a marriage agreement

Answer: C

28. According to the passage, the marriage was allegedly solemnised only by:

A. Exchange of garlands

B. Performance of Saptapadi

C. Registration under the Special Marriage Act

D. Signatures on a non-judicial stamp paper

Answer: D

29. The minimum age for marriage under the Hindu Marriage Act is:

A. 21 years for the groom and 18 years for the bride

B. 21 years for both parties

C. 18 years for both parties

D. 18 years for the groom and 21 years for the bride

Answer: A

30. Restitution of Conjugal Rights is provided under:

A. Section 7

B. Section 8

C. Section 9

D. Section 10

Answer: C

VII. Learned counsel for the appellants contended that the High Court erred in granting quashing relief only to the sister-in-law on the ground that the allegations against her were vague and general, while denying the same relief to the present appellants. It was argued that the allegations against the appellants are equally omnibus in nature and do not attribute any specific role to them. Therefore, the criminal proceedings against them also deserve to be quashed.

It was further submitted that the FIR is essentially a counter-blast to the divorce petition filed by the husband. In support of this contention, counsel pointed out that the FIR contained no allegation regarding dowry in the form of a motor vehicle. However, within twelve days, the complainant allegedly improved her version in a complaint filed before the Chief Judicial Magistrate by introducing a new allegation that her family had given a Maruti car as dowry. According to the appellants, such material improvements in the complainant’s narrative cast serious doubt on the credibility and genuineness of the allegations.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Dr. Sushil Kumar Purbey & Anr. v. State of Bihar & Ors., 2026 INSC 212]

31. The complaint alleged that the husband and his relatives harassed the complainant to bring a Maruti car as dowry. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of subjecting a woman to such cruelty by the husband or his relatives is punishable under:

A. Section 85 BNS

B. Section 80 BNS

C. Section 111 BNS

D. Section 296 BNS

Answer: A

32. A petition under Section 528 BNSS seeking quashing of an FIR is generally filed before:

A. Judicial Magistrate First Class.

B. Sessions Court.

C. High Court.

D. Supreme Court only

Answer: C

33. An FIR primarily serves which of the following purposes under criminal procedure?

A. To prove the guilt of the accused conclusively

B. To record the earliest information regarding the commission of a cognizable offence

C. To frame charges against the accused

D. To determine punishment

Answer: B

34. In the passage, the complainant allegedly supplemented her allegations by filing a complaint before the:

A. Sessions Judge

B. Chief Judicial Magistrate

C. District Magistrate

D. Chief Metropolitan Magistrate

Answer: B

35. Which doctrine is based on the principle that events and statements forming part of the same transaction derive reliability from their spontaneity?

A. Estoppel

B. Acquiescence

C. Double Jeopardy

D. Res Gestae

Answer: D

VIII. A contract of guarantee is between the creditor, the principal debtor and the surety, whereunder the creditor has a remedy in relation to his debt against both the principal debtor and the surety [National Project Construction Corporation Limited v. Sandhu and Co. MANU/PH/0072/1990 : AIR 1990 P&H 300]. The surety here may be a corporate or a natural person and the liability of such person goes as far as the liability of the principal debtor. As per Section 128 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the liability of the surety is coextensive with that of the principal debtor and the creditor may go against either the principal debtor, or the surety, or both, in no particular sequence [Chokalinga Chettiar v. Dandayunthapani Chattiar MANU/TN/0285/1928 : AIR 1928 Mad 1262]. Though this may be limited by the terms of the contract of guarantee, the general principle of such contracts is that the liability of the principal debtor and the surety is co-extensive and is joint and several [Bank of Bihar v. Damodar Prasad MANU/SC/0220/1968 : AIR 1969 SC 297]. The Committee noted that this characteristic of such contracts i.e. of having remedy against both the surety and the corporate debtor, without the obligation to exhaust the remedy against one of the parties before proceeding against the other, is of utmost importance for the creditor and is the hallmark of a guarantee contract, and the availability of such remedy is in most cases the basis on which the loan may have been extended.

[Extracted from Canara Bank Overseas Branch v. Archean Industries Pvt. Ltd. & Anr., 2026 INSC 247]

36. The relationship among the parties in a contract of guarantee consists of:

A. Promisor, promisee, and beneficiary

B. Creditor, principal debtor, and surety

C. Bailor, bailee, and guarantor

D. Principal, agent, and indemnifier

Answer: B

37. Which legal principle emerges from Chokalinga Chettiar v. Dandayunthapani Chattiar?

A. The creditor may proceed against the principal debtor, the surety, or both in no particular sequence.

B. The creditor must first obtain a decree against the principal debtor.

C. A surety is discharged upon the debtor’s default.

D. A guarantee is unenforceable without consideration.

Answer: A

38. Which provision of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, governs the co-extensive liability of the surety?

A. Section 124

B. Section 126

C. Section 127

D. Section 128

Answer: D

39. A guarantee obtained by concealment of material circumstances by the creditor is:

A. Valid and binding

B. Void only against the principal debtor

C. Invalid

D. Valid unless fraud is proved

Answer: C

40. If the creditor loses or parts with a security without the consent of the surety, the surety is:

A. Not affected

B. Fully discharged in all cases

C. Discharged to the extent of the value of the security

D. Liable for double the debt

Answer: C

IX. As regards the detenue, who is the petitioner’s wife, it appears that she has voluntarily chosen to maintain a relationship with the third respondent. If she has decided to reside with him of her own free will, no further relief can ordinarily be granted in a petition seeking a writ of habeas corpus. The petitioner is at liberty to pursue any appropriate legal remedies against his wife before the competent court. However, the primary concern of this Court pertains to the welfare and custody of the two minor children, who have also been taken away by the detenue.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from S. Murugan v. Superintendent of Police & Ors. (H.C.P.(MD) No. 335 of 2026)]

41. A writ of Habeas Corpus is primarily issued to:

A. Determine property rights

B. Challenge illegal detention of a person

C. Enforce contractual obligations

D. Recover damages for tortious acts

Answer: B

42. If an adult woman voluntarily chooses to reside with another person, a Habeas Corpus petition filed by her husband would generally:

A. Automatically succeed

B. Result in criminal prosecution of the other person

C. Not be maintainable if her choice is voluntary

D. Lead to annulment of marriage

Answer: C

43. The expression “detenue” in Habeas Corpus jurisprudence refers to:

A. The person alleged to be under detention

B. The respondent

C. The petitioner

D. The investigating officer

Answer: A

44. Which writ is preventive in nature and is issued to prevent an inferior court from exceeding its jurisdiction?

A. Certiorari

B. Prohibition

C. Mandamus

D. Habeas Corpus

Answer: B

45. The Supreme Court’s power to issue writs under Article 32 is available for:

A. Enforcement of all legal rights

B. Enforcement of statutory rights only

C. Enforcement of Directive Principles only

D. Enforcement of Fundamental Rights only

Answer: D

X. The International Labour Organization (ILO) through Maternity Protection Conventions (Convention No. 3, Convention No. 103, and Convention No. 183) recommended for entitlements related to maternity protection at work having regard to the evolving status and recognition of women’s right at workplace. Initially, Convention No. 3 provided 12 weeks maternity leave with cash benefits to ensure continuity of income, daily breaks for nursing, and protection against dismissal during leave. However, this was limited to women working in public or private industrial or commercial undertakings. Later, Convention No. 183 extended the period of leave to 14 weeks and the scope of protection to women employed in industrial undertakings and in nonindustrial and agricultural work.

………………………We may look into the decision of B. Shah v. Presiding Officer, Labour Court, reported in (1977) 4 SCC 384, wherein this Court held that the interpretation of beneficial legislation must be guided by its underlying objective of advancing social justice. The Court emphasised that the period of maternity leave serves multiple purposes, including enabling the mother’s physical recovery, facilitating the nurturing and care of the child, and ensuring the level of her previous efficiency and output.

Extracted from Hamsaanandini Nanduri v. Union of India & Ors., 2026 INSC 246]

46. Which ILO Convention extended maternity leave to 14 weeks?

A. Convention No. 100

B. Convention No. 111

C. Convention No. 103

D. Convention No. 183

Answer: D

47. In B. Shah v. Presiding Officer, Labour Court (1977), the Supreme Court emphasised that beneficial legislation should be interpreted:

A. Strictly according to its text

B. According to employer interests

C. In light of its objective of advancing social justice

D. Only in accordance with international conventions

Answer: C

48. Assertion (A): Maternity benefit legislation should receive a liberal interpretation in favour of women employees.

Reason (R): The objective of such legislation is to advance social justice and protect the health and welfare of both mother and child.

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C. A is true, but R is false.

D. A is false, but R is true.

Answer: A

49. Which of the following labour laws was subsumed into the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020?

A. Factories Act, 1948

B. Mines Act, 1952

C. Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970

D. All of the above

Answer: D

50. A group of employees jointly refuse to work until wages are increased. This is:

A. Retrenchment

B. Lockout

C. Strike

D. Closure

Answer: C

XI. A combined reading of the Guardians and Wards Act, 1890 and the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956 makes it evident that the 1890 Act does not define the term “natural guardian.” Instead, it defines a “guardian” as a person entrusted with the care of a minor, the minor’s property, or both. Under the 1890 Act, an application for the appointment of a guardian is required to be made under Sections 8 and 10, and the court may appoint a guardian of the minor, the minor’s property, or both upon being satisfied of the necessity of such appointment. Further, Section 29 imposes restrictions on the powers of a guardian appointed in respect of a ward’s property. Such a guardian cannot mortgage, charge, sell, gift, exchange, or otherwise transfer the property without obtaining prior permission from the court.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Smt. Doli v. Smt. Shakuntla Devi (First Appeal From Order No. 2057 of 2025)]

51. Which of the following is not a mode of transfer under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

A. Sale

B. Mortgage

C. Adoption

D. Exchange

Answer: C

52. A mortgage by deposit of title deeds is known as:

A. Simple Mortgage

B. Usufructuary Mortgage

C. English Mortgage

D. Equitable Mortgage

Answer: D

53. X fraudulently represents himself as the owner of a property and transfers it to Y. Later, X actually acquires ownership of that property. Which doctrine may protect Y?

A. Election

B. Ostensible Ownership

C. Feeding the Grant by Estoppel

D. Part Performance

Answer: C

54. A transferor gives property to another and directs that a third person shall receive the benefit. The transferee accepts the benefit but rejects the obligation. Which doctrine becomes relevant?

A. Part Performance

B. Election

C. Lis Pendens

D. Redemption

Answer: B

55. A charge on immovable property arises when:

A. Ownership is transferred absolutely

B. Property is made security for payment of money without creating a mortgage

C. Possession is transferred to the creditor

D. The property is leased for consideration

Answer: B

XII. Mr. Bose submits that the shareholders or the directors neither have any right nor can claim any title to any property owned by the company. The plaintiff as an individual does not have any cause of action to claim any right, title or interest of any assets or properties owned by any incorporated company. He submits that the plaintiff does not have any cause of action and right to sue with respect to such assets and properties of the defendant nos. 8 to 15. He submits that the plaintiff prays for a declaration in respect of shareholding patterns, which are alleged to have altered by the defendant nos. 1 and 2 and have illegally oust the plaintiff from the management and control of the defendant companies, thus in terms of prayers (b), (c), (d) and (e) of the plaint, the plaintiff has to approach the Learned National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT). He submits that as per provisions of Section 430 read with Sections 241 and 242 of the Companies Act, 2013, this Court does not have any jurisdiction to entertain the suit filed by the plaintiff. He has relied upon the judgment in the case of Shashi Prakash Khemka (Dead) through Lrs. & Anr. Vs. NEPC MICON (Now NEPC India Limited) and Others reported in (2019) 18 SCC 569 and submits that the Learned National Company Law Tribunal is having the exclusive jurisdiction to deal with all issues relating to oppression and mismanagement of the company.

[Extracted from Manoj Kumar Gupta v. Sri Aloke Kumar Gupta & Ors, C.S. No. 246 of 2022]

56. Under the Companies Act, 2013, disputes relating to oppression and mismanagement are primarily adjudicated by:

A. Civil Court

B. High Court

C. National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)

D. District Court

Answer: C

57. Section 430 of the Companies Act, 2013 bars the jurisdiction of:

A. Supreme Court only

B. Civil Courts in matters assigned to NCLT/NCLAT

C. High Courts only

D. Arbitrators

Answer: B

58. In Shashi Prakash Khemka v. NEPC MICON, the Supreme Court emphasised that:

A. Civil courts have concurrent jurisdiction with NCLT.

B. Shareholders can directly claim company assets.

C. Arbitration is mandatory in company disputes.

D. NCLT has exclusive jurisdiction over matters of oppression and mismanagement.

Answer: D

59. Differential Voting Rights (DVR) shares fall under:

A. Equity Share Capital

B. Preference Share Capital

C. Debenture Capital

D. Loan Capital

Answer: A

60. Which of the following represents the primary classification of share capital in a company limited by shares?

A. Authorised Capital and Issued Capital

B. Subscribed Capital and Paid-up Capital

C. Equity Share Capital and Preference Share Capital

D. Reserve Capital and Nominal Capital

Answer: C

XIII. A State-Level Replantation Committee shall be constituted comprising the Conservator of Forests and the Director of Agriculture. At the district level, separate committees may be established, consisting of one representative each from the Forest and Agriculture Departments and at least two to five experienced agriculturists or environmental activists engaged in plantation initiatives. These committees shall identify and recommend suitable native tree species for plantation in their respective regions. The selection of species shall prioritise ecological sustainability, biodiversity conservation, environmental restoration, and mitigation of greenhouse gas emissions. While determining the varieties to be planted, due consideration shall be given to: (i) the requirements of birds, insects, and other wildlife for flowers, fruits, and habitat; (ii) the fodder needs of livestock and other animals; (iii) the medicinal, nutritional, and other beneficial uses for human beings; and (iv) the potential of certain species to address fuelwood requirements, including their use in charcoal production and related industries.

[Extracted with edits from Vaiko v. The Chief Secretary, Government of Tamil Nadu, W.P.(MD)Nos.16485 of 2015]

61. Which environmental principle is best reflected in the requirement to consider ecological, animal, and human needs simultaneously?

A. Polluter Pays Principle

B. Public Trust Doctrine

C. Sustainable Development

D. Absolute Liability

Answer: C

62. Which landmark Supreme Court case expressly recognised the Precautionary Principle and Polluter Pays Principle as part of Indian environmental law?

A. Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra v. State of U.P.

B. Vellore Citizens’ Welfare Forum v. Union of India

C. M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath

D. T.N. Godavarman v. Union of India

Answer: B

63. Under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, “environment” includes:

A. Air and water only

B. Land and forests only

C. Water, air, land and their inter-relationships with living and non-living entities

D. Wildlife only

Answer: C

64. The minimum number of experienced agriculturists or green activists required in a district-level committee is:

A. One

B. Five

C. Three

D. Two

Answer: D

65. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) was originally constituted under which legislation?

A. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

B. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981

C. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974

D. National Green Tribunal Act, 2010

Answer: C

XIV. Mr. Sinha contended that it is a well-established principle that proceedings under Section 197 of the Income Tax Act do not determine an assessee’s taxable income or final tax liability. Such determination can only be made through regular assessment proceedings, subject to the appellate remedies provided under the Act, as contemplated by Section 190. He argued that a certificate issued under Section 197 is merely an interim and provisional measure, granted on the basis of prevailing tax demands and revenue considerations. Consequently, it does not confer any vested or enforceable right upon the assessee, nor does the issuance of nil or lower deduction certificates in earlier years bind the Revenue in subsequent assessment years. Since proceedings under Section 197 are summary and temporary in nature, reliance on certificates granted in previous years is misplaced and legally unsustainable.

Further, Mr. Sinha submitted that Section 197, read with Rule 28AA of the Income Tax Rules, specifically mandates the Assessing Officer to consider factors such as tax payable on the basis of completed assessments and any outstanding tax liabilities while deciding an application for a lower or nil deduction certificate. He argued that where a recoverable tax demand exists and no stay has been granted against its recovery, the Revenue cannot issue a nil or lower deduction certificate, as doing so would undermine and frustrate the statutory recovery process.

[Extracted with edits from MakeMyTrip (India) Private Limited v. Assistant Commissioner of Income Tax, Circle-75(1), Delhi & Anr., W.P.(C) 11956/2025]

66. A certificate issued under Section 197 of the Income Tax Act primarily relates to:

A. Final assessment of income

B. Lower or nil deduction of tax at source

C. Penalty proceedings

D. Reassessment proceedings

Answer: B

67. The determination of an assessee’s final tax liability is reserved for:

A. Section 197 proceedings

B. Revision proceedings under Section 263

C. TDS proceedings only

D. Regular assessment proceedings

Answer: D

68. Which authority administers direct taxes in India?

A. GST Council

B. Reserve Bank of India

C. Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)

D. Finance Commission

Answer: C

69. A person against whom proceedings have been initiated under the Income Tax Act for assessment of income is:

A. Not an assessee until tax is determined

B. An assessee

C. An appellate authority

D. A representative assessee

Answer: B

70. The Income-tax Settlement Commission is constituted by:

A. Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)

B. Parliament

C. Central Government

D. President of India

Answer: C

XV. The doctrine of promissory estoppel is applicable against the State Government but, in case there is a supervening public equity, the Government must be allowed to change its stand, it would then be able to withdraw the representation made by it which induced person to take certain steps which may have gone adverse to the interest of the such person on account of such withdrawal. If a party claiming application of the doctrine acted on the basis of a notification, it should have known that such notification was liable to be amended or rescinded at any point of time, if the Government felt that it was necessary to do so in public interest. However, the Court must satisfy itself that such a public interest exists.

[Extracted from State of Maharashtra & Ors. v. Reliance Industries Ltd. & Ors. (2026 INSC 296)]

71. Promissory estoppel prevents a party from:

A. Filing a suit

B. Going back on a promise that has been relied upon by another party

C. Making future contracts

D. Exercising statutory powers

Answer: B

72. A person relying upon a Government notification should ordinarily be aware that:

A. Notifications are permanent in nature

B. Notifications can never be challenged

C. Notifications may be amended or rescinded in public interest

D. Notifications have the force of constitutional provisions

Answer: C

73. If a person acts on the basis of a Government notification granting incentives, and the notification is later withdrawn in genuine public interest, the doctrine of promissory estoppel:

A. Automatically prevents withdrawal

B. May not operate against the Government

C. Requires payment of compensation in every case

D. Makes the withdrawal void ab initio

Answer: B

74. The doctrine of promissory estoppel is primarily founded on the principle of:

A. Strict liability

B. Parliamentary privilege

C. Criminal negligence

D. Equity and fairness

Answer: B

75. Promissory estoppel is intended to prevent:

A. Unfairness

B. Litigation

C. Taxation

D. Legislation

Answer: A

XVI. A clear distinction exists between the law of contract and the law of tort. A contract arises from the voluntary agreement and consent of the parties, whereas a tort generally results from the violation of a legal duty independent of consent. Contractual obligations are based on privity, meaning that rights and liabilities exist only between the contracting parties. In contrast, tortious liability may arise even in the absence of any prior relationship between the parties.

Torts must also be distinguished from mere breaches of contract. Firstly, a tort involves the infringement of a right in rem, a right enforceable against the world at large. A breach of contract, on the other hand, amounts to the violation of a right in personam, which is enforceable only against a specific individual or entity bound by the agreement.

Secondly, the motive behind a breach of contract is generally irrelevant in determining liability. In tort law, however, the defendant’s intention, malice, fraud, recklessness, or other improper motives may be relevant in assessing liability and damages.

Thirdly, damages awarded for breach of contract are primarily compensatory in nature and are intended to place the injured party in the position they would have occupied had the contract been performed. In tort actions involving personal injury, defamation, or mental suffering, courts may award aggravated damages where the defendant’s conduct is particularly oppressive or malicious. In exceptional cases, exemplary or punitive damages may also be granted in tort to punish the wrongdoer and deter similar conduct, a remedy that is rarely available in contract law.

[Extracted with edits from Upadhyay, Dr. Minal H., The Law of Torts in India, International Journal of Research in All Subjects in Multi Languages (IJRSML), Vol. 2, Issue 2, February 2014]

76. Which of the following best distinguishes a tort from a contract?

A. A tort is founded on consent.

B. A contract is imposed by law.

C. A tort arises from breach of a legal duty independent of agreement.

D. Both arise only from mutual promises.

Answer: C

77. Which feature best supports the classification of X’s conduct as a tort rather than a breach of contract?

A. Presence of privity between parties

B. Violation of a right enforceable against the world at large

C. Existence of consideration

D. Mutual consent between parties

Answer: B

78. Slander is generally defamation in:

A. Written form

B. Permanent form

C. Spoken form

D. Electronic form only

Answer: C

79. Which of the following is NOT a defence in tort?

A. Volenti non fit injuria

B. Necessity

C. Contributory negligence

D. Consideration

Answer: D

80. Nuisance may be classified as:

A. Public and private nuisance

B. Civil and criminal nuisance only

C. Permanent and temporary nuisance only

D. Written and oral nuisance

Answer: A

XVII. In Union of India v. G. Kiran & Ors., a two-Judge Bench of the Supreme Court considered the claim of reserved-category candidates who had availed relaxation in the preliminary examination of the Indian Forest Service Examination and had subsequently secured higher ranks than certain unreserved candidates in the final merit list based on their performance in the main examination and personality test. The issue before the Court was whether such candidates could be treated as general merit candidates for the purpose of cadre allocation.

Referring to Rule 14(ii) of the Indian Forest Service Examination Rules, 2013, which stipulated that a candidate would be treated as a general merit candidate only if he or she had not availed any relaxed standard at any stage of the examination, the Court held that candidates who had benefited from relaxation in the preliminary examination could not be shifted to unreserved vacancies merely because they secured higher marks in the later stages. Consequently, the respondents were held ineligible for migration to the general category. Notably, however, the Court did not consider the earlier decision in Vikas Sankhala v. Union of India, which had addressed similar issues concerning migration and reservation.

[Extracted with edits from Chaya & Ors. v. State of Maharashtra & Anr., 2026 INSC 277]

81. In Union of India v. G. Kiran & Ors., the primary issue before the Supreme Court was:

A. Validity of reservation in promotions

B. Cadre allocation of reserved category candidates who availed relaxation

C. Constitutionality of Article 16(4A)

D. Validity of the UPSC examination system

Answer: B

82. Article 16(2) prohibits discrimination in public employment on grounds only of:

A. Religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence

B. Language, religion, caste, education

C. Wealth, religion, sex, domicile

D. Race, education, profession, residence

Answer: A

83. The concept of “relaxed standards” in reservation generally refers to:

A. Higher qualifying marks for reserved categories

B. Concessions such as lower cut-offs, age relaxation, or qualifying standards

C. Elimination of examinations

D. Relaxation of constitutional requirements

Answer: B

84. In Indra Sawhney, the Supreme Court upheld reservation of how much for Other Backward Classes (OBCs)?

A. 10%

B. 22.5%

C. 27%

D. 50%

Answer: C

85. State of Madras v. Smt. Champakam Dorairajan (1951) is significant because it was:

A. The first case on judicial review

B. The first major Supreme Court judgment on reservation

C. The first case on preventive detention

D. The first case on federalism

Answer: B

XVIII. When a privately owned vehicle is requisitioned by the State for public purposes, the owner loses possession and control over its use. The vehicle is then operated entirely under the directions of the government, which determines its deployment and purpose. Since the owner has no role in its operation during this period, liability for any accident or untoward incident should ordinarily fall upon the requisitioning authority rather than the insurer.

A requisition is a compulsory statutory act, not a voluntary arrangement. The insurance policy obtained by the owner is intended to cover the vehicle’s ordinary and authorised use, not its deployment for governmental functions beyond the owner’s control. Therefore, requiring the insurer to bear liability for risks arising during such requisition would unfairly extend the scope of the insurance contract. Once the State assumes control and uses the vehicle for its own purposes, it must also assume the corresponding legal responsibility.

[Extracted with edits from District Magistrate and District Election Officer and Collector, Gwalior, M.P. v. National Insurance Company Limited & Ors., 2026 INSC 279]

86. When a privately owned vehicle is requisitioned by the State, who ordinarily assumes control over its use?

A. The owner

B. The insurer

C. The requisitioning authority

D. The Regional Transport Officer

Answer: C

87. Which legal concept most strongly supports the view that the State should bear liability during requisition?

A. Caveat Emptor

B. Vicarious Liability arising from control and supervision

C. Res Judicata

D. Estoppel

Answer: B

88. Which of the following statements is most consistent with the passage?

A. Ownership alone determines liability.

B. The insurer is always liable for accidents involving the insured vehicle.

C. State control during requisition shifts responsibility to the State.

D. Requisition transfers ownership to the government.

Answer: C

89. The central rationale of the passage is that:

A. The State must bear the consequences of risks arising from activities it controls.

B. Insurance companies should never be liable.

C. Owners are always exempt from liability.

D. Requisitioned vehicles cannot be insured.

Answer: A

90. A requisition of a vehicle by the State is best characterised as:

A. A contract of bailment

B. A lease agreement

C. A statutory compulsion

D. An indemnity contract

Answer: C

XIX. We have been shown certain ad-interim orders passed at the Aurangabad Bench and the Kolhapur Circuit Bench. We are informed that at several places, the Sarpanch is yet to take charge as Administrator. The learned Advocate General submits that if the Sarpanch is restrained from taking charge, either the Gram Panchayat would be practically headless, or the entire Panchayat may then have to operate the Gram Panchayat, which would be contrary to Article 243 (E) of the Constitution of India.

There is no dispute that such Gram Panchayats could number around 14,500 and the State Government has taken a decision to place the outgoing Sarpanch in the position of Administrator after the term of Sarpanch has expired.

[Extracted from Alankar Balasaheb Kanchan & Anr. v. State of Maharashtra & Anr., Writ Petition No. 2912 of 2026]

91. Article 243E of the Constitution primarily deals with:

A. Powers of Municipalities

B. Duration of Panchayats

C. Election Commission of India

D. State Finance Commission

Answer: B

92. The constitutional provisions relating to Panchayats were introduced by which Constitutional Amendment?

A. 42nd Amendment

B. 44th Amendment

C. 73rd Amendment

D. 74th Amendment

Answer: C

93. The five-year term of a Panchayat is calculated from:

A. Date of election notification

B. Date of declaration of results

C. Date of oath of the Sarpanch

D. Date appointed for its first meeting

Answer: D

94. If a Panchayat is dissolved before the expiry of its term, elections must ordinarily be completed within:

A. Three months

B. Six months

C. Nine months

D. One year

Answer: B

95. Assertion (A): A functioning Panchayat cannot be dissolved merely because the law governing Panchayats has been amended.

Reason (R): Article 243E(2) protects the tenure of a Panchayat already functioning at the time of such amendment.

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C. A is true, but R is false.

D. A is false, but R is true.

Answer: A

XX. While concluding the case, the Court clarified that its interpretation of Article 25 of the Constitution does not confer any special status on followers of Islam. Rather, Article 25 equally guarantees all persons the right to profess, practice, and propagate their religion, subject only to public order, morality, and health. The Court emphasised that this protection does not extend to acts or speech that incite hostility between religious communities and disturb public order.

The Court noted that congregational worship is an important feature of Abrahamic faiths such as Judaism, Christianity, and Islam, while religions like Hinduism and Buddhism generally do not prescribe fixed days for community worship, with followers often gathering during festivals and religious celebrations. Article 25 safeguards the right of every religious denomination to assemble for worship; however, it does not protect activities that deviate from the primary purpose of prayer. The Court reiterated that incitement against another faith under the guise of religious worship falls outside the scope of constitutional protection and may attract criminal liability.

[Extracted with edits from Munazir Khan v. State of U.P. and Others, Writ – C No. – 5996 of 2026]

96. Article 25 of the Constitution of India guarantees:

A. Only the right to practice religion

B. Only the right to profess religion

C. The right to profess, practice, and propagate religion

D. The right to establish educational institutions

Answer: C

97. According to the passage, congregational worship is particularly associated with:

A. Only Hinduism

B. Only Buddhism

C. Tribal religions

D. Abrahamic faiths

Answer: D

98. The Court’s interpretation of Article 25 emphasises:

A. Preferential treatment of certain religions

B. State-sponsored religion

C. Equality of all faiths before the Constitution

D. Restriction on religious propagation

Answer: C

99. Which Supreme Court decision is most closely associated with the “Essential Religious Practices” doctrine?

A. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

B. Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowments, Madras v. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Shirur Mutt

C. Minerva Mills v. Union of India

D. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India

Answer: B

100. Which constitutional principle is most strongly reflected in the Court’s observations?

A. Secularism

B. Rule of Law

C. Parliamentary Sovereignty

D. Collective Responsibility

Answer: A

XXI. As regards the observation of the Ld. Trial Court concerning large cash transactions, it is pertinent to mention thatthe Plaintiff/Appellant and the Defendant/Respondent may be in violation of the provisions of the Income Tax Authorities, which may attract penalty under the Income-tax Act, but the transaction, though in cash, is proved in this Civil Suit, and cannot be disregarded.

For the reasons stated hereinabove, the Defendant has miserably failed to discharge the onus to prove that he had re-paid the entire loan.

[Extracted from Moti Lal v. Prem Chand (RFA 271/2025)]

101. Large cash transactions between parties may primarily attract consequences under which law?

A. Transfer of Property Act, 1882

B. Income-tax Act, 1961

C. Companies Act, 2013

D. Indian Partnership Act, 1932

Answer: B

102. If parties engage in a prohibited cash transaction, the Income-tax Department may impose:

A. Imprisonment only.

B. Cancellation of the transaction automatically.

C. Penalty under the Income-tax Act.

D. Specific performance.

Answer: C

103. The burden of proving entitlement to a deduction generally lies upon:

A. Assessing Officer

B. Commissioner of Income Tax

C. Assessee claiming the deduction

D. CBDT

Answer: C

104. The primary objective of Sections 269SS and 269T is to:

A. Encourage cash transactions

B. Prevent circulation of unaccounted money and tax evasion

C. Increase GST collection

D. Regulate imports and exports

Answer: B

105. Income escaping assessment may be reassessed under:

A. Section 80C

B. Section 139

C. Section 147

D. Section 194A

Answer: C

XXII. While addressing the legal tests applicable to Article 12, the Court reaffirmed the principles laid down by the Constitution Bench of the Court in Ajay Hasia and Others v. Khalid Mujib Sehravardi and Others, which emphasised that the decisive question is not how an entity is created but whether it functions as an instrumentality or agency of the Government. The Court further relied on Pradeep Kumar Biswas and Others v. Indian Institute of Chemical Biology and Others, where the Supreme Court clarified that the tests laid down in Ajay Hasia (supra) are not rigid and that the cumulative facts must demonstrate financial, functional, and administrative domination by the Government, with control that is deep and pervasive. The Court also drew support from Chander Mohan Khanna v. National Council of Educational Research and Training, which cautioned against an over-expansive interpretation of Article 12 merely on the basis of governmental association or assistance.

[Extracted from Ravi Khokhar & Ors. v. Union of India & Ors. (2026 INSC 233)]

106. In determining whether an entity falls within Article 12, the Supreme Court in Ajay Hasia emphasised that the key consideration is:

A. The source of the entity’s funding alone

B. The manner of incorporation of the entity

C. Whether the entity functions as an instrumentality or agency of the Government

D. Whether the entity performs charitable functions

Answer: C

107. The concept of “deep and pervasive control” was prominently discussed in:

A. Minerva Mills v. Union of India

B. Pradeep Kumar Biswas v. Indian Institute of Chemical Biology

C. Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

D. Golaknath v. State of Punjab

Answer: B

108. Chander Mohan Khanna v. NCERT cautioned courts against:

A. Narrow interpretation of Fundamental Rights

B. Expanding Article 21 jurisprudence

C. Judicial review of administrative actions

D. Over-expansive interpretation of Article 12 merely because of governmental association

Answer: D

109. The expression “instrumentality or agency of the Government” is most closely associated with:

A. Chander Mohan Khanna v. NCERT

B. Ajay Hasia v. Khalid Mujib Sehravardi

C. ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla

D. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

Answer: B

110. Which of the following is expressly included within the definition of “State” under Article 12?

A. Government and Parliament of India

B. Private Companies

C. Political Parties

D. Religious Institutions

Answer: A

XXIII. The prosecution alleged that Tikam Singh suffered three incised wounds. However, the doctor who medically examined and treated him was not produced as a witness during the trial. Although the injury report was formally exhibited, the prosecution failed to substantiate the nature, location, depth, and gravity of the injuries through competent medical testimony. As a result, it remains unclear whether the injuries sustained by PW-2 were simple or grievous in nature.

This deficiency assumes considerable importance while assessing the charge under Section 307 of the IPC. It is true that a conviction for attempt to murder does not invariably depend upon proof of grievous injuries, as the intention of the accused and the manner in which the assault was carried out are equally relevant considerations. Nevertheless, the present case is marked by significant uncertainties regarding crucial aspects of the prosecution story, including the specific role attributed to the surviving appellants, the allegation of firearm use, the attribution of knife injuries, and the motive for targeting Tikam Singh, who admittedly had no involvement in the original dispute.

In this backdrop, the absence of reliable medical evidence regarding the injuries allegedly suffered by Tikam Singh further weakens the prosecution case and constitutes an additional circumstance warranting the grant of benefit of doubt to the appellants. The Supreme Court in Lakshmi Singh v. State of Bihar, (1976) 4 SCC 394, observed that where the prosecution suppresses material evidence or leaves significant aspects of the case unexplained, the courts must examine its version with heightened caution. In the present case, the non-examination of the doctor who treated the injured witness has left the nature and seriousness of the injuries unestablished, thereby casting further doubt on the prosecution’s narrative.

111. The principle of benefit of doubt is applied when:

A. The prosecution proves its case conclusively

B. The accused admits guilt

C. Reasonable doubt persists regarding material facts

D. The offence is compoundable

Answer: C

112. Under Section 109 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (307 IPC), attempt to murder is committed when a person does an act with such intention or knowledge that, if death were caused, the act would amount to:

A. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder

B. Murder

C. Hurt

D. Grievous hurt

Answer: B

113. A person convicted under Section 109 BNS may also be liable to:

A. Fine

B. Forfeiture of property only

C. Community service only

D. Probation only

Answer: A

114. In Lakshmi Singh v. State of Bihar (1976), the Supreme Court held that when the prosecution suppresses material evidence, the court should:

A. Automatically acquit the accused

B. Presume the prosecution’s case is true

C. Shift the burden of proof to the accused

D. Scrutinise the prosecution’s version with greater caution

Answer: D

115. Under the BNSS, “investigation” primarily refers to:

A. Proceedings conducted by a court during trial

B. Proceedings for the collection of evidence

C. Pronouncement of judgment

D. Execution of a sentence

Answer: B

XXIV. India’s environmental legal framework has evolved not only through domestic initiatives but also through its active engagement with international environmental governance. A major turning point was the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment held in Stockholm in 1972, which highlighted the importance of global cooperation in addressing environmental concerns. Following this conference, India became a participant in several significant international instruments, including the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development, 1992, and the Paris Agreement, 2015. These commitments have played an important role in shaping national environmental policies and encouraging the incorporation of internationally accepted principles of sustainable development and climate action into domestic legislation.

The constitutional foundation for environmental protection in India was strengthened through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. Article 48-A, incorporated under the Directive Principles of State Policy, mandates the State to take measures for the protection and improvement of the environment and for safeguarding the country’s forests and wildlife. Correspondingly, Article 51-A(g), included among the Fundamental Duties, places an obligation on every citizen to preserve and enhance the natural environment, including forests, rivers, lakes, and wildlife. Together, these provisions establish a shared responsibility between the State and citizens in promoting ecological conservation and environmental sustainability.

A landmark development in India’s environmental regulatory regime was the enactment of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, following the devastating Bhopal Gas Disaster. The Act serves as an umbrella legislation conferring wide-ranging powers upon the Central Government to implement measures necessary for environmental protection and improvement. It authorises the government to prescribe standards for emissions and pollutants, regulate the handling of hazardous substances, coordinate environmental policies, and establish mechanisms for effective environmental governance. The legislation continues to provide the overarching framework for pollution control and environmental management across various sectors in India.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Ganesh Ji, “The Role of Environmental Law in the Protection of the Environment in the Indian Context”, Indian Journal of Integrated Research in Law, Vol. IV, Issue VI, 2024.]

116. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. International environmental agreements have no impact on Indian law.

B. India’s environmental laws developed independently of international conventions.

C. International environmental commitments have influenced India’s domestic environmental framework.

D. Only constitutional provisions govern environmental protection in India.

Answer: C

117. Which of the following conventions is correctly arranged chronologically?

A. Paris Agreement → Rio Declaration → Stockholm Conference

B. Stockholm Conference → Rio Declaration → Paris Agreement

C. Rio Declaration → Stockholm Conference → Paris Agreement

D. Stockholm Conference → Paris Agreement → Rio Declaration

Answer: B

118. The combined effect of Articles 48-A and 51-A(g) is to:

A. Create only judicially enforceable environmental rights

B. Establish environmental responsibilities for both government and citizens

C. Confer legislative powers on local authorities

D. Restrict environmental regulation to forests and wildlife only

Answer: B

119. Assertion (A): Article 48-A directs the State to protect and improve the environment.

Reason (R): Article 48-A was inserted as part of the Directive Principles of State Policy.

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C. A is true, but R is false.

D. A is false, but R is true.

Answer: A

120. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 is often described as:

A. A revenue-generating statute

B. An umbrella legislation on environmental protection

C. A criminal procedure law

D. A wildlife-specific legislation

Answer: B

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