Chhattisgarh Judiciary Prelims Examination 2023 Solved Paper | Chhattisgarh Judiciary Prelims Solved Papers PDF

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1. The fee payable under the Court Fees Act, 1870 shall be computed :

(B) On the full value of the plaintiff’s share in the property in suits for partition

2. In suits for interim profit or for immovable property and for interim profit or for account, if the profit or amount decreed exceeds the profit claimed or the amount on which the plaintiff has assessed the relief sought then :

3. Where the amount of interim profit is left to be determined during execution of the decree, there if the profit so ascertained exceeds the claimed profits, then :

I. The execution of the decree shall be stopped

II. The decree shall be executed unless the difference between the fee actually paid and the fee which would have been payable if the whole of the profit identified was included in the suit

III. If the additional fee is not paid within such time as the Court shall rule, the suit shall be dismissed

4. Among the following statements, the true statement is :

(A) The net profits or the market value has been estimated, the Court shall require the amount to be paid as insufficient and, if it is not paid within the stipulated time, dismiss the suit

(B) The question of valuation on a plaint or memorandum of appeal is determined by the Court where the suit is pending and its decision is final

(C) The Court in which the plaint or appeal is filed and the assessment made by that Court is insufficient, the reference shall require the Court of appeal or revision to pay an additional fee and, if it is not payable within the stipulated time, dismiss

5. Among the following statements, the true statement is :

(A) If the application for review is partly or wholly due to new evidence being modified or reversed, the Court shall authorise the application to recover the fee paid

(B) Where the Court, on the application for review, reverses its absolute decision on the ground of lapse of law or fact, shall authorise the refund of such fee by the amount exceeding the amount when the other application has been made

6. Which provision of the Limitation Act specifies that where the letter of administration of the estate of a creditor has been granted to his debtor, the continuance of the limitation of the suit to recover such debt shall be suspended?

7. Select the correct option by matching the following under the Court Fees Act, 1870 :



Schedule 1

Format of Assessment

Schedule 2

Fixed Fees

Schedule 3

Advanced Fees

(A) Schedule 1 – Fixed fees

(B) Schedule 2 – Advanced Fees

(C) Schedule 3 – Format of Assessment

(D) All of the above

8. Where, at the time of making an application for probate of a bill or for a letter of administration, any person has estimated the property of the deceased to be overvalued and has paid a very high fee, the probate before the Chief Controlling Revenue Authority within the determination of the true value of the property, or presents a letter of administration

(A) Six months

(B) Two months

(C) Seven months

(D) One year

9. Once the calculation of the limit is started, it will continue to run again and again. The exceptions to this rule are

I . Time taken to receive copy of decree or order for appeal or review

II. Debtor’s letter of administration

III. Time in the case of Akinchan

IV. If in good faith any other civil proceeding in a Court without jurisdiction

V. When an injunction has been obtained to prevent the filing of a suit

The true statements in the above are:

(A) AIl I, II, III, IV and V above

(B) Only I and III of the above

(C) Only II and III of the above

(D) Only III, IV and V of the above

10. The important case of the Supreme Court, the Land Acquisition Officer; Anantnag vs. Katiji is related to :

(A) Section 6 of the Limitation Act

(B) Section 5 of the Limitation Act

(C) Section 7 of the Limitation Act

(D) Section 9 of the Limitation Act

11. The important case of the Supreme Court N. Balakrishnan vs. M. Krishnamurthy, (1998) 7 SCC 123 is related to :

(A) Length of delay is no matter; acceptability of the explanation is the only criterion

(B) The condonation of delay is a matter of discretion of the Court

(C) Widened the scope and ambit of law of limitation

(D All of the above

12. In a case, the Supreme Court held that the Indian Limitation Act, 1963 is the only general law for the whole country, all other laws determining the period of limitation are either special laws or local laws. If they fix time periods for specific cases, they will be called special laws

(A) Lata Kamat vs. Vilas

(B) Justiniano vs. Antonio

(C) Syndicate Bank vs. Prabha D Nayak

(D) None of the above

13. In order to acquire the right to easement against Government property, by virtue of which it is prescribed:

(A) A period of 30 years

(B) A period of 60 years

(C) A period of 20 years

(D) A period of 25 years

14. An application for review decision of the Court should be made within 30 days from the date of the order or decree:

(A) In the Supreme Court

(B) In the High Court

(C) In the Supreme and High Court

(D) None of the above

15. A owes Rs. 1 lakh to B. B is entitled to recover this amount from A. This is called :

(A) Rights in Personam

(B) Rights in Rem

(C) Constitutional Right

(D) There is no right at all

16. A has bought a house for Rs. 50,000. Which of the following rights is available to A after the purchase?

(A) He has a right against the seller to have a quiet possession of the house and enjoy in it

(B) He has a right against the whole world to have a quiet possession of the house and enjoy in it

(C) He has a moral right over the house

(D) He has a right to live in the house, but he cannot sell

17. A and B enter into a contract to marry each other. Before the time is fixed for the marriage, A goes mad. The contract becomes:

(A) Void

(B) Illegal

(C) Valid

(D) Voidable

18. Where a particular type of contract is required by law to be in writing and registered, it must comply with the necessary formalities as to writing, registration and attestation. Otherwise, such a contract is :

(A) Void contract

(B) Illegal agreement

(C) Valid contract

(D) Unenforceable contract

19. A contract in which, under the terms of a contract, one or both the parties have still to perform their obligations in future is known as :

(A) Executed contract

(B) Executory contract

(C) Unilateral contract

(D) None of the above

20. All Government Contracts made in exercise of the executive power of the union shall be expressed to be made by the President under:

(A) Article 297 of the Constitution of India

(B) Article 280 of the Constitution of India

(C) Article 299 of the Constitution of India

(D) None of the above

21. If the agreement consists of legal and illegal parts, and legal part is separable from illegal part, then legal part is :

(A) None

(B) Voidable

(C) Void

(D) Valid

22. In which of the following cases J. Kekewich observed that “You cannot limit an estate to a man and his heirs until he shall convey the land to a stranger, because it is of the essence of an estate in fee that it confers free power of alienation, and it has long been settled that the same principle is applicable to gifts of personality”?

(A) Metcalfe vs. Metcalfe

(B) Deo vs. Bevan

(C) Tamaya vs. Timpa

(D) Hippolite vs. Stuart

23. The Privy Council in Mohammed Sher Khan vs. Seth Swami Daval has settled that :

(A) Section 98 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is subiect to Section 60 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882

(B) Section 60 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is subject to Section 98 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882

(C) Either (A) or (B) depending on the facts of the individual cases

(D) Neither (A), nor (B)

24. Section 37 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 refers to apportionment by estate. In this light, before the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, when a transfer was severed by the sale of shares in the version the tenant was still obliged to pay the rent to all shares jointly:

(A) Unless an apportionment had been agreed to by all the parties

(B) Any party is agreed by all the parties

(C) Any two parties are agreed

(D) None of the above

25. Section 5 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 :

(A) Applies to property sold in auction sale

(B) Does not apply to property sold in auction sale

(C) Applies to compromise of doubtful rights

(D) Does not apply to compromise of doubtful rights

26. In which of the following cases is the rule against perpetuity not applicable under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

(A) In case property is transferred for the benefit of lineal descendant

(B) In case property is transferred for the purpose of construction of a winery

(C) In case property is transferred for the purpose of creating a temple promoting Sati

(D) In case property is transferred for building a library for comic books

27. B transfers some property to C with a condition that in case A marries during B’s lifetime, the property will go to A. A marries during B’s life. Which of the following statements will apply?

(A) The transfer to C is void and property reverts back to B

(B) The transfer and condition are valid, and the property will transfer to A

(C) The transfer is valid. but condition is invalid, property remains with C

(D) The transfer is voidable at C’s option

28. According to provisions of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the easements

(A) Can be transferred

(B) Cannot be transferred

(E) Cannot be transferred apart from the dominant heritage

(D) Can be transferred apart from the dominant heritage

29. The word ‘Court of Justice has been defined under which Section of I.P.C.?

(A) Section 19

(B) Section 20

(C) Section 30

(D) Section 25

30. Which of the following cases is not related to ‘bigamy?

(A) R vs. Tolson

(B) R vs. Wheat

(C) R vs. Dolman

(D) State of UP vs. Premi

31. The words Candidate and ‘Electoral Rights’ have been defined under which Section of I.P.C.?

(A) Section 171

(B) Section 171A

(C) Section 171B

(D) Section 171C

32. Causing death to a child in a mother’s womb is not homicide. It is provided under

(A) Explanation-1 to Section 299

(B) Explanation-Il to Section 299

(E) Explanation-III to Section 299

(D) Explanation-V to Section 300

33. Which of the following statements is correct? In ‘sedition’

(A) The consequence is immaterial

(B) The consequence is material

(C) The consequence acts as mitigating factor

(D) The consequence becomes material only if it is foreseen

34. “Power of Parliament to modify the rights conferred by this part in their application to forces, etc.” is the basis of which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution?

(A) Article 31

(B) Article 30

(C) Article 33

(D) Article 32(1)

35. The President’s Rule under Article 356 remains valid in any State for the maximum period of :

(A) Two months

(B) Three months

(C) Four months

(D) Six months

36. Flying a National Flag is a symbol of expression coming within the purview of Article 19(1)(a). It was held in the case of :

(A) Union of India vs. Association for Democratic Reform, AIR 2002 SC 2112

(B) PUCL vs. Union of India, AIR 2003 SC 2363

(C)Union of India vs. Naveen Jindal, (2004)2 SCC 510

(D) None of these

37. The landmark case of Golaknath vs. State of Punjab’ was decided in the year:

(A) 1965

(B) 1967

(C) 1966

(D) 1971

38. “Though the people of this country differed in a number of ways, they all were proud to regard themselves as participants in a common heritage. and that heritage, emphatically, is the heritage of Sanskrit.” It was held in the case of :

(A) Santosh vs. Ministry of H.R.D, 1994(6) SCC 579

(B) Bommai vs. UOI, AIR 1994 SC 1918

(C) Commissioner; Hindu Religious Endowments vs. Lakshmindra (1954)

(D) None of these

39. Under which Section of Cr.P.C. can a person be declared as a ‘Proclaimed Offender’?

(A) Section 81

(B) Section 82(1)

(C) Section 82(3)

(D) Section 82(4)

40. Match the following with correct option :

(i) Security for good behaviour from suspected persons

(a)Section 108

(ii) Security for good behaviour from habitual offenders

(b)Section 109

(iii) Security for good behaviour from persons disseminating seditious matters

(c )Section 110

(iv) Security for keeping the peace on conviction

(d)Section 106


(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(C) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

41. Section 126, Cr.P.C. makes provision for :

(A) Forum

(B) Forum and Evidence

(C) Forum and Cost

(D) Forum, Evidence and Cost

42. Conditional Order under Cr.P.C. for the removal of nuisance can be passed by :

(A) District Magistrate

(B) Sub-Divisional Magistrate

(C) Any other Executive Magistrate

(D) All of the above

43. As per Section 1(2), which chapters of Cr.P.C. shall apply to Nagaland?

(A) Only Chapter IX

(B) Chapters VIlI and VII

(C) Chapters VIII, IX and X

(D) Chapters VIII, X and XI

44. Which of the following is correctly matched?

(A) Ordinary place of inquiry and trial_-Section 179

(B) Offences triable where act is done Section 178

(C) Offences committed on voyage and journey–Section 183

(D) Offences committed by letters, etc.-Section 188

45. A photograph can be proved by examination of the photographer and by proving the negative. It was held in which case?

(A) State of Gujarat vs. Bharat, 1991 Cr.L.J. 978

(B) Purushothama vs. S. Perumal, AIR 1972 SC 608

(C) S. R. Wadekar vs. UOI, AIR 1993 Bom. 64

(D) None of the above

46. Section 91 of the Indian Evidence Act makes provisions for :

(A) Contracts

(B) Grants

(C) Contracts and grants

(D) Contracts, grants and other disposition of property

47. Which of the following is not correct?

(A) That an accomplice is unworthy of credit

(B) That an accomplice is not unworthy of credit

(C) That Judicial and Official Acts have been regularly performed

(D) That a common course of

48. Any person can become incompetent to testify on following ground :

(A) Extreme old age

(B) Tender age and extreme old age

(C) Disease whether of mind or body

(D) Any one of the above grounds

49. In which case it was held that “Confession must either admit in terms of offence or at any rate, substantially all the facts which constitute the offence”?

(A) Aghnoo Nagesia vs. State of Bihar, 1966

(B) Sahoo vs. State of U.P., 1966

(C) Palvinder Kaur vs. State of Punjab, 1952

(D) Pakala Narayana Swami VS. Emperor, 1939

50. The provision regarding ‘Oral Evidence’ is given in which Chapter of the Indian Evidence Act?

(A) Chapter-IlI

(B) Chapter-IV

(C) Chapter-V

(D) Chapter-VI

51. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872 a wagering agreement is :

(A) Treated as voidable

(B) Treated as void

(C) Treated as public policy

(D) Treated as valid

52. An agency under the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is terminated when :

(A) Principal revoking his authority

(B) The death of either principal or agent

(C) Principal being adjudicated an insolvent

(D) All of the above

53. A enters into a contract with B. In this, B is guilty of fraud. A can now :

(A) Rescind the contract but cannot get compensation

(B) Get compensation only

(C) Rescind the contract and get compensation

(D) None of the above

54. The Indian Contract Act. 1872 lays down the definition of ‘contract’ in :

(A) Section 2(c)

(B) Section 2(d)

(C) Section 2(e)

(D) Section 2(h)

55. The juristic concept of contract consists of :

(A) Offer and acceptance

(B) Consideration and coercion

(C) Agreement and obligation

(D) Free consent and capacity

56. Which of the following is an essential component of a valid contract?

(A) Equality in the bargaining power between the parties

(B) Social and economic pressures, the parties are exposed to

(C) Dominance of one party over the others

(D) Competence and the contractual capacity of the parties

57. The communication of acceptance through telephone is regarded as complete, when:

(A) Acceptance is spoken on phone

(B) Acceptance comes to the knowledge of the party proposing

(C) Acceptance is put in course of transmission

(D) Acceptor has done whatever is required to be done by him

58. “Denatured” has been defined under the Chhattisgarh Excise Act, 1915.

(A) Section 2(5)

(B) Section 2(9-A)

(C) Section 2(17)

(D) Section 2(12)

59. Passes for the import, export or transport of intoxicants may be granted by :

(A) Excise Commissioner

(B) Chief Revenue Authority

(C) Collector

(D) Officer appointed by State Govt.

60. Provision relating to closing of shops for the sake of public peace is :

(A) Section 18

(B) Section 21

(C) Section 24

(D) Section 23(A)

61. Who is competent authority for permitting establishment or licensing of distilleries and warehouses?

(A) Collector

(B) Excise Inspector

(C) Excise Commissioner

(D State Government

62. Whose prior permission is essential for granting license to sell liquor in Cantonment Area?

(A) President

(B) Central Government

(C) Defence Secretary

(D) Commanding Officer

63. Provision relating to form and conditions of licence is :

(A) Section 28

(B) Section 28(A)

(C) Section 29

(D) Section 30

64. Any holder of a license, granted under the Chhattisgarh Excise Act may surrender his licence to :

(A) State Government

(B) Competent Authority

(C) Excise Commissioner

(D) Collector

65. ‘Immovable Property’ has been defined under of the Registration Act, 1908.

(A) Section 2(5)

(B) Section 2(6)

(C) Section 2(10)

(D) Section 2(9)

66. Section 16-A of the Registration Act was added in :

(A) Year 2001

(B) Year 1999

(C) Year 2004

(D) Year 1998

67. Provision relating to enquiry before registration by Registering Officer is

(A) Section 32

(B) Section 32(1)

(C) Section 34

(D) Section 35

68. When the Office of Registrar of a district is temporarily vacant, who has power to appoint a person to act as Registrar till the vacancy is filled?

(A) Governor

(B) Governor on Advice of State Govt.

(C) Inspector-General of Registration

(D) District Judge

69. Which one of the following documents may be presented and deposited at any time?

(A) Gift of Immovable Property

(B) Power of Attorney

(C) Will

(D) Sale of Immovable Property

70. Provisions relating to enforcing the appearance of executants and Witnesses have been provided in the Registration Act.

(A) Part-VI

(B) Part-VIl

(C) Part-VIII

(D) Part-V

71. Condonation of delay in not making complaint within time is provided in :

(A) Section 147

(B) Section 142

(C) Section 141

(D) Section 140

72. Under Section 31 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 the liability of drawee shall be towards :

(A) Drawer

(B) Holder

(C) Holder in due course

(D) Payee

73. Provision relating to endorsement for part of sum due is

(A) Section 53

(B) Section 54

(C) Section 55

(D) Section 56

74. A promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque payable by order is negotiable by the holder by :

(A) Endorsement

(B) Delivery

(C) Endorsement and delivery

(D) Endorsement or delivery

75. Holder’s right to duplicate of lost bill is provided in :

(A) Section 44

(B) Section 44(A)

(C) Section 45

(D) Section 45(A)

76. Which of the following presumptions is prescribed under Section 118 of the Negotiable Instruments Act?

(A) Of consideration

(B) As to date

(C) As to time of acceptance

(D) All of the above

77. In the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959 ‘Agriculture’ includes :

(A) Horticulture

(B) The planting and upkeep of commercial plantations, orchards

(C) The reserving of land for fodder, grazing or thatching grass

(D) All of the above

78. Which of the following Sections is substituted by Chhattisgarh Act. No. 6 of 2022, w.e.f. 4-5-2022?

(A) Section (u)

(B) Section (v)

(C)Section (w)

(D) Section (x)

79. Qualification for appointment as a member of the Board of Revenue is mentioned in :

(A) Section 5(1)

(B) Section 5(2)

(C) Section 5(3)

(D) None of the above

80. Under the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959, all Revenue Officers shall be subordinate to the

(A) Commissioner

(B) State Government

(C) Additional Tahsildar

(D) Naib Tehsildar

81. Section 22 of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code is related to :

(A) Appointment of Superintendents of Land Records and Assistant Superintendents of Land Records

(B) Subordination of Revenue Officers

(C) Sub-Divisional Officer

(D) Other Officer

82. Code of Civil Procedure to apply in all proceedings under the Land Revenue Code, when no express provision made:

(A) Section 44

(B) Section 43

(C) Section 42

(D) Section 41

83. As per Limitations of Appeals, no appeal shall lie within the Land Revenue Code:

(A) To the Commissioner after expiration of sixty days from such date

(B) To the Board of Revenue after the expiration of ninety days from such date

(C) Both (A) and (B) are correct

(D) None of the above

84. The term of assessment of land revenue made by District Survey Officer shall, ordinarily be of :

(A) 15 years

(B) 20 years

(C) 25 years

(D) None of the above

85. Under the Specific Relief Act, 1963, an injunction cannot be granted :

(A) To restrain any person from applying to any legislative body

(B) To restrain any person from instituting or prosecuting any proceeding in a criminal matter

(C) Both (A) and (B) are correct

(D) None of the above

86. Section 36 of the Specific Relief Act is related to :

(A) Preventive relief how granted

(B) Declaratory Decrees

(C) Both (A) and B) are correct

(D) None of the above

87. Under which Section of the Specific Relief Act, cancellation of instruments may be ordered ?

(A) Section 31

(B) Section 30

(C) Section 29

(D) Section 28

88. Rescission of contracts may be adjudged or refused :

(A) Where the contract is voidable or terminable by the plaintiff

(B) In case of unlawful

(C) The defendant is more to blame than the plaintiff

(D) All of the above

89. Chapter-Ill of the Specific Relief Act is related to :

(A) Rescission of contracts

(B) Rectification of instruments

(C Both (A) and (B) are correct

(D) None of the above

90. Under the Specific Relief Act, special provision for contract relating to infrastructure project is related to :

(A) Section 21

(B) Section 20(B)

(C) Section 20(A)

(D) Section 20(C)

91. Who may obtain specific performance?

(A) Any party thereto

(B) The representative in interest or principal of any party thereto

(C) A reversioner in possession

(D) All of the above

92. Rights of purchaser or lesse against person with no title or imperfect title are related to

(A) Section 12

(B) Section 13

(C) Section 14

(D) None of the above

93. The State Government shall by notification constitute a Tribunal in terms of _ of the Constitution, to be called as Chhattisgarh Rent Control Tribunal.

(A) Article 323(B)

(B) Article 323

(C) Article 32(A)

(D) None of the above

94. Rent Controller shall be subordinate to :

(A) Collector

(B) Rent Control Tribunal

(C) Deputy Collector

(D) Commissioner

95. Under the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, powers and functions of Rent Controller are related to

(A) Section 8

(B) Section 9

(E) Section 10

(D) Section 11

96. Under the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, every tenant shall have rights according to:

(A) Schedule 2

(B) Schedule 3

(E) Schedule 1

(D) None of the above

97. Right to seek from the Rent Controller eviction of the tenant will be on the ground:

(A) If the tenant becomes a social nuisance

(B) If the tenant is a habitual defaulter in payment of rent and/or other dues

(C) (A) and (B) both are correct

(D) None of the above

98. Schedule-3 of the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act is related to :

(A) Landlord’s obligation

(B) Tenant’s obligation

(C) Tenant’s right

(D) None of the above

99. Under the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, total Schedules are

(A) Six

(B) Five

(C) Three

(D) None of the above

100. Section 2(b) of the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act is related to:

(A) Accommodation

(B) Landlord

(C) Lease

(D) Member of the family


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