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Jharkhand Judiciary Prelims Paper 2024
1. Choose the correct one word substitute for the following.
One who looks at the bright side of things.
(A) Omicist
(B) Pessimist
(C) Orientalist
(D) Optimist
2. What is the most appropriate indirect form of the following?
She said to me, “Please give me your book.”
(A) She asked if I could give a book.
(B) She requested me to give her my book.
(C) She ordered me for my book.
(D) She enquired if I could give her the book.
3. Which among the following is an adverb?
(A) Temerity
(B) Headlong
(C) Precipitation
(D) Adventurer
4. Choose the correct sentence from the following.
(A) More than one boy was absent from the class.
(B) More than one boy were absent from the class.
(C) More than one boy absent from the class.
(D) More than two boys was absent from the class.
5. Choose the correct spelling from the following.
(A) Somnambulist
(B) Samnabulist
(C) Somnabullist
(D Sommnambulist
6. To drop in on is to:
(A) drop down from tree
(B) drop down from mountain
(C) visit someone unexpectedly
(D) visit someone on invitation
7. What is the antonym of refreshment?
(A) Weariness
(B) Regalement
(C) Quick freeze
(D) Repast
8. Name the type of pronoun that the following sentence has used in the underlined word.
I am the girl who has won the gold medal.
(A) Possessive pronoun
(B) Personal pronoun
(C) Relative pronoun
(D) Reflexive pronoun
9. Choose the word that is different in meaning from the other words.
(A) Sullen
(B) Morose
(C) Gloomy
(D) Grinning
10. Choose the word closest in meaning to the underlined word in the sentence.
A horrible conviction darted through Ramesh.
(A) Dawdle
(B) Floated
(C) Fly
(D) Flicked
11. Which one of the following ethnic communities does not belong to Manipur?
(A) Meitei
(B) Naga
(C) Kuki
(D) Khasi
12. Rohingya refugees have been displaced from which country?
(A) From Bangladesh
(B) From Thailand
(C) From Sri Lanka
(D) From Myanmar
13. Who among the following is the Foreign Minister of Ukraine?
(A) Volodymyr Zelenskyy
(B) Dmytro Kuleba
(C) Yevgeny Brezhnev
(D) Yevgeny Prigogine
14. Who is the author of “Jinnah: His Successes, Failures and Role in History”?
(A) Aafia Siddiqui
(B) Asiya Siddiqui
(C) Ishtiaq Ahmed
(D) Shahid Amin
15. Who was appointed as the caretaker Prime Minister of Pakistan after the resignation of Shahbaz Sharif under Constitutional Provisions?
(A) Anwaar-ul Haq Kakar
(B) Imran Khan
(C) Maryam Nawaz
(D) Shahid Hussain
16. Vaibhav Taneja has been appointed as the Chief Financial Officer of which MNC?
(A) Microsoft
(B) Tesla
(C) Google
(D) Facebook
17. What is the name of the organization related to space research in Pakistan?
(A) SUPARCO
(B) PASRO
(C) ISRO
(D) NASA
18. Who won the men’s singles title of Wimbledon – 2023?
(A) Carlos Alcaraz
(B) Pitt Sampras
(C) Roger Federer
(D) Novak Djokovic
19. Who among the following got the first Nobel Prize for Literature?
(A) Sully Prudhomme
(B) Jean Paul Sartre
(C) Bertrand Russell
(D) Rabindranath Tagore
20. To which of the following country India has exported Pinaka, Multi-Rocket System?
(A) Ukraine
(B) Afghanistan
(C) Armenia
(D) Vietnam
21. Which of the following is correct about the Civil Procedure Code, 1908?
(A) It has total 158 Sections, arranged in preliminary and XI Parts, with one Schedule containing LI Orders
(B) It has total 153 Sections, arranged In preliminary and XII Parts, with one Schedule containing L Orders
(C) It has total 163 Sections, arranged on preliminary and X Parts, with one Schedule containing LII Orders
(D) It has total 150 Sections, arranged on preliminary and XI Parts, with one Schedule containing XLIX Orders
22. In which of the following cases, review of a decree or order cannot be allowed to an aggrieved person under the rules of Order XLVII of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908?
(A) Where there is discovery of a new and an important matter or evidence which after the exercise of due diligence was not within his knowledge or could not be produced by him at the time when the decree was passed or order made
(B) When on account of some mistake or error apparent on the face of the record or for any other sufficient reason, desires to obtain a review of the decree passed or order made against him
(C) When the decision on a question of aw on which the judgement of the court is based has been reversed or modified by the subsequent decision of a superior court in any other case
(D) In all of the above cases review of a decree or order can be allowed
23. For the purposes of making a contract, a person is said to be of sound mind, if at the time of making of contract, he is:
(A) Capable of understanding it and of forming a rational judgement as to its effect upon his interests
(B) A person who has obtained the age of majority
(C) Capable of giving free consent
(D) All of the above
24. The offence of ‘Sextortion’ has been included in the Indian Penal Code by way of State Amendment in respect of which State/Union Territory?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh
(D) Manipur
25. Taylor v. Caldwell is a landmark case on the issue of:
(A) Uncertain agreements
(B) Doctrine of impossibility
(C) Indemnity
(D) None of the above
26. A knows Z to be behind a bush. B does not know it. A, intending to cause, or knowing it to be likely to cause Z’s death, induces B to fire of the bush. B fires and kills Z.
Which of the following is correct?
(A) B may be guilty of no offence, but A has committed the offence of culpable homicide
(B) B is guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder but A has committed the offence of murder
(C) Both A and B are guilty of culpable homicide
(D) None of the above is correct
27. Provisions relating to ‘plea bargaining’ are found in which Chapter of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973?
(A) Chapter XXI
(B) Chapter XXI A
(C) Chapter XXII
(D) Chapters XXI and XXI A
28. Which of the following provisions of the Indian Evidence Act protects from disclosure of certain kinds of professional communications?
(A) Section 123
(B) Section 124
(C) Section 125
(D) Section 126
29. Section 151 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 saves the inherent powers of the Court to make such Orders as may be necessary for which of the following?
(A) To ensure the rule of law or to prevent abuse of the process of the Court
(B) For the ends of justice or to ensure the rule of law
(C) For the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the process of the Court
(D) For the ends of justice or to ensure the rule of law or to prevent abuse of the process of the Court
30. For the purposes of conclusiveness of foreign judgement, which of the following is a presumption that may be displaced under Section 14 of CPC, 1908?
(A) It has been on merits of the case
(B) It has been pronounced by a court of competent jurisdiction
(C) Proceeding in which the judgement was obtained was not opposed to natural justices
(D) All of the above
31. Under Section 190 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, a Magistrate of competent jurisdiction may take cognizance of any offence:
(A) Only upon receiving a complaint of facts which constitute such offence
(B) Also upon a police report of such facts
(C) Upon his own knowledge, that such offence has been committed
(D) All of the above
32. When in a proceeding, the court has to form an opinion, on any matter relating to any information transmitted or stored in any computer resource or any other electronic or digital form, the opinion of the examiner of electronic evidence referred a Section 79 A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 is
(A) a relevant fact
(B) a fact in issue
(C) a conclusive proof
(D) an incontrovertible fact
33. Lalitha Kumari v. Govt. of UP and Ors (2013) is a landmark case on which of the following issues?
(A) Arrest to prevent the commission of cognizable offences under Section 151
(B) Registration of FIR under Section 154
(C) Procedure for investigation under Section 157
(D) Examination of witnesses by police under Section 161
34. Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act is often referred as exception to the rule stated under
(A) Section 25
(B) Section 26
(C) Both Sections 25 and 26
(D) Section 28
35. The provisions relating to transfer of decree for execution is stated under of Civil Procedure Code, 1908.
(A) Section 38
(B) Section 39
(C) Section 40
(D) None of the above
36. In order to convert a proposal into a promise, acceptance must be
(A) Accompanied by consideration
(B) Prompt and expeditious
(C) Absolute, unqualified and expressed in some usual and reasonable manner
(D) All of the above
37. Which of the following courts are excluded from the general power of transfer and withdrawal conferred under Section 24 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908?
(A) The Supreme Court of India
(B) The High Courts
(C) District Courts
(D) None of the above
38. Under Section 203 of the Criminal Procedure Code, a magistrate may dismiss a complaint for which of the following reasons?
(A) Magistrate is of opinion that there is no sufficient ground for proceeding
(B) Magistrate is of opinion that there is not adequate evidence to convict the accused
(C) Magistrate conclusively finds that accused is no more alive
(D) In all of the above circumstances
39. The provisions relating to the “General Exceptions” are given under _____ of the Indian Penal Code.
(A) Chapter III
(B) Chapter IV
(C) Chapter V
(D) Chapter VI
40. In the bailment of pledges, under the Indian Contract Act, pawnor is
(A) Bailor
(B) Bailee MRS
(C) Surety
(D) None of the above
41. A and B agree that A shall pay B Rs. 1,000/-, for which B shall afterwards deliver to A, either rice or smuggled opium. Which of the following is correct legal incidence?
(A) Agreement between A and B is void totally
(B) It is a valid contract to the extent of delivery of rice
(C) It is a void agreement as to delivery of opium
(D) It is a valid contract to deliver rice and void agreement as to the opium
42. Under the Indian Evidence Act, the expression, “facts in issue”, means and includes – any fact from which, either by itself or in connection with other facts, the existence, non-existence, nature or extent of any right, liability or disability asserted or denied in any suit or proceeding
(A) may follow
(B) necessarily follows
(C) in all probability follow
(D) none of the above
43. Rules relating to the appeal to the Supreme Court is found in _____ of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908.
(A) Order XLI
(B) Order XLV
(C) Order XLIX
(D) None of the above
44. Which of the following offences relating to religion is the most serious one in terms of the severity of the punishment to the offender?
(A) Injuring or defiling place of worship with intent to insult the religion of any class
(B) Deliberate and malicious acts, intended to outrage religious feelings of any class by insulting its religion or religious beliefs
(C) Disturbing religious assembly
(D Uttering words etc. with deliberate intent to wound religious feelings
45. Mohori Bibi v. Dharmodas Ghose (1903) is considered a landmark case on the issue of
(A) the ambit of contracts by minors
(B) the nature and type of consideration
(C) the principal and agent relationship
(D) the consequences of breach of contract
46. Which of the following is incorrect about agency under the Indian Contract Act?
(A) An agent may be employed to do any act for the principal
(B) Only such person may be employed as agent who has obtained the age of majority
(C) The authority of agent must be expressed in writing
(D) No consideration is necessary to create an agency
47. Judicially noticeable fact
(A) Need not be proved
(B) Are enlisted under Section 56 of the Indian Evidence Act
(C) Need to be proved only when its truth is contested by the other party
(D) All of the above is correct about judicially noticeable fact
48. Who among the following cannot record statement or confession under Section 164 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973?
(A) Any Metropolitan Magistrate
(B) Any Judicial Magistrate
(C) Any Executive Magistrate in the absence of the Metropolitan Magistrate or the Judicial Magistrate of the competent jurisdiction
(D) All of the above may record statement or confession
49. Which of the following is true about the Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India Case (2018)?
(A) The Supreme Court struck down the whole of Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code
(B) The Supreme Court affirmed its previous judgement in the Suresh Kaushal Case (2013)
(C) The Supreme Court found certain parts of Section 377 of IPC violative of Articles 14, 15, 21 as well as Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution
(D) All of the above are correct
50. In which of the following cases reference cannot be made to the High Court?
(A) Before the hearing of a suit
(B) An appeal where the decree is not subject to appeal
(C) In the execution of decree
(D) In all of the above cases, reference to the High Court can be made
51. The Supreme Court in Mohd. Khalid Vs. State of West Bengal [2002(7) SCC 334] case stated that,“We cannot overlook that the basic principle which underlines Section of the Evidence Act is the theory of agency. Every conspirator is an agent of his associate in carrying out the object of conspiracy.” Which provisions of the Evidence Act was the Supreme Court referring to?
(A) Section 7
(B) Section 8
(C) Section 9
(D) Section 10
52. Under Section 361 of the Indian Penal Code, the lawful guardian of the minor includes
(A) Only father
(B) Only the parents
(C) Only the immediate relatives
(D) Any person lawfully entrusted with the care or custody of minor
53. Which of the following is correct about decree and judgement?
(A) Decree and judgement are the same
(B) Civil Procedure Code defines decree, but does not define judgement
(C) Decree includes any order of dismissal for default
(D) None of the above
54. The contents of documents may be proved by
(A) the primary evidence only
(B) the secondary evidence only
(C) either by primary evidence or the secondary evidence in every case
(D) primary evidence only except in certain prescribed cases where it may be proved by the secondary evidence as well
55. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an agreement not enforceable by law is
(A) Void agreement
(B) Voidable contract
(C) Unlawful agreement
(D) Void as well as unlawful agreement
56. A continuing guarantee may be revoked by the surety at any time as to future transactions
(A) By notice to the creditor and consent of the principal debtor
(B) By approval of the creditor
(C) By notice to the creditor and principal debtor
(D) By notice to the creditor
57. A intending or knowing himself to be likely to permanently disfigure Z’s face, gives Z a blow which does not disfigure Z’s face permanently, but which causes Z to suffer severe bodily pain for the space of twenty days. Which of the following is correct?
(A) A has voluntarily caused hurt
(B) A has voluntarily caused grievous hurt
(C) A has voluntarily caused hurt, as well as grievous hurt
(D) A has involuntarily caused grievous hurt
58. Which of the following kind of the examination of witness is provided under Section 137 of the Indian Evidence Act?
(A) Examination-in-Chief
(B) Cross Examination
(C) Re-examination
(D) All of the above
59. In an Order in the Ashwini Kumar Upadhyay v. Union of India (Writ Petition (Civil) No. 943/2021) Case, the Supreme Court directed, inter alia, that States and Union Territories “shall ensure immediately, as and when any speech or any action takes place which attracts offences such as Section of Indian Penal Code etc., without any complaint being filed, suo motu action be taken to register cases and proceed against the offenders in accordance with law”. The provisions of IPC stated by Supreme Court included
(A) Sections 153 A and 153 B
(B) Section 295 A
(C) Section 506
(D) All of the above Sections
60. Which of the following is not correct about the power of courts to allow amendment of pleadings?
(A) Power of the court to allow amendment of pleadings is provided under Rule 17 of Order V of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908
(B) Provisions of Rule 17 of Order VI of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 is exhaustive of the power of a court in matters of amendment of pleadings
(C) Provisions of Rule 17 of Order VI of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 gives wide discretion on a court to allow either party to amend the pleadings subject to certain well established principles of law
(D) Kisandas V Rachappa Vithoba (1909) is a landmark case on the principles of law applicable to the amendment of pleadings
61. In which of the following cases, there may be presumption to absence of consent in prosecution for rape?
(A) Rape as covered u/s 376(1)
(B) Rape as covered u/s 376(2)
(C) Rape as covered u/s 376(3)
(D) All of the above
62. An aggrieved wife W registers FIR under Sections 498A/323 and 406 of IPC against her husband H at the police station of competent jurisdiction. After two years since the registration of FIR an amicable settlement is reached between them and they had been living together happily for over a year now. At this stage, husband and wife both approach the High Court for quashing of FIR under Section 482 of the Cr.P.C. However in the meantime the police investigation has been completed and the charge sheet filed against the accused husband. Which of the following is legally permissible?
(A) The High Court cannot quash the FIR as offences for which FIR is registered are non-compoundable under Section 320 of the Criminal Procedure Code
(B) The High Court cannot quash the FIR firstly because, offences for which FIR is registered are non-compoundable, secondly because the charge sheet has been filed
(C) The High Court is mandated to quash the FIR as wife, the alleged victim and husband, the alleged accused both are generally requesting for quashing of FIR
(D) The High Court in its discretion may quash FIR if it finds that it will secure the ends of justice
63. ”Good faith” as defined under Section 52 of the Indian Penal Code necessarily involves
(A) due care and attention
(B) absence of bad intention
(C) genuine belief
(D) all of the above
64. In which of the following cases a judge records an order of acquittal under Section 232 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973?
(A) If he finds that there is no sufficient ground for proceeding with trial
(B) If he finds that there is no evidence that the accused committed the offence
(C) If the accused pleads ‘not guilty’ and the prosecution doesn’t contest to i that
(D) In all of the above cases
65. Which of the following is incorrect about pleadings?
(A) It means plaint or written statement
(B) It contains a statement in a concise form of the material facts on which the party pleading relies for his claim or defence
(C) It also contains evidence by which material facts are to be proved
(D) The general provisions relating to pleadings are found in Order VI, the first Schedule of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908
66. McNaughten’s Case principle relates to the
(A) Defence of unsound mind
(B) Right to self defence
(C) Defence of the mistake of fact
(D) None of the above
67. During a political function of the ruling dispensation in a State, there is firing by the police in which several persons are killed. Consequently a FIR is filed in the local police station against the accused policeman. Further a Commission of Enquiry headed by a senior police officer is set up under the Commission of Enquiry Act to investigate the matter. Even when investigation in pursuance of the FIR filed is underway the enquiry commission gives a denning report against the accused policemen and recommends strongest criminal action against them. Which of the following is legally valid course of action as a follow up to the report of commission?
(A) Based on the report of the commission a second FIR in super-session to the first FIR may be filed
(B)The report of the Enquiry Commission will be binding on the Investigating Officer of the case in pursuance of the first FIR
(C) The report of the Enquiry Commission shall carry a conclusive weightage before the court conducting trial of the case
(D) None of the above is legally valid course of action
68. A lends a violent horse to B. While B rides the horse, it runs away violently. B is thrown off and injured. A is responsible to pay B for damages sustained
(A) Only if the contract of bailment specifically stipulates payment of such damages, otherwise not
(B) If A knew about the violent nature of horse and did not disclose it to B
(C) Whether A knew about the violent nature of horse or not, if he did not caution B
(D) In none of the above cases, as the injury has been caused by the acts of the horse, which was not in control of A, when the injury was caused
69. Dhulabhai Vs State of Madhya Pradesh and another (AIR 1969 SC 78) is a leading case on the issue of
(A) Distinction between material facts and particulars
(B) Principles regarding exclusion of jurisdiction of civil courts
(C) Principles regarding place of suing
(D) Execution of decree
70. Which of the following is included in the definition of “dishonestly” under the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
(A) Whoever does anything with the intention of causing wrongful gain to one person
(B) Whoever does anything with the knowledge of causing wrongful gain to one person
(C) Whoever does anything with the knowledge and belief of causing wrongful gain to one person
(D) None of the above
71. The Appellate Court shall as are conferred and imposed by this Code on courts of original jurisdiction in respect of suits instituted therein. As per the provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, which of the following correctly fills the blank?
(A) have the same powers
(B) perform as nearly as may be the same duties
(C) have higher powers than
(D) have the same powers and shall perform as nearly as may be the same duties
72. Which of the following provisions of the Indian Evidence Act empowers the Judge to ask any question that he wishes about relevant fact or irrelevant from the witnesses or the parties?
(A) Section 164
(B) Section 165
(C) Section 166
(D) None of the above
73. Which of the following provisions of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 provides for dealing with offences committed outside India?
(A) Section 184
(B) Section 186
(C) Section 188
(D) Section 190
74. Under Section 300 of the Indian Penal Code, how many kinds of exceptions have been stipulated, where culpable homicide is not murder?
(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) Six
75. Where a woman commits suicide within a period of seven years from the date of her marriage and it is shown that soon before her death, her husband or other relative of her husband had subjected her to cruelty in connection with any demand for dowry, then it is a case of
(A) presumption of dowry death
(B) presumption of abetment of suicide by husband or other relative of husband both
(C) presumption of dowry death as well as presumption of abetment of suicide
(D) presumption of cruelty caused to her by her husband or other relative
76. Which of the following is included or deemed as complaint under the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973?
(A) An allegation made orally or in writing to a Magistrate with a view to his taking action under the Code, that some person, whether known or unknown has committed an offence
(B) A police report forwarded by a Police Officer to a Magistrate under Sub-section 2 of Section 173
(C) A report made by a Police Officer in a case which discloses, after investigation, the commission of a non-cognizable offence
(D) All of the above, except (B) relating to a police report forwarded by a Police Officer to a Magistrate under sub-section (2) of Section 173
77. A is plaintiff and B is a defendant in a pending suit in respect of a suit property situated in Ranchi. When the suit is pending, B transfers the said property to C, who becomes the transferee of the suit property pendente lite having notice and knowledge about the pendency of the suit for specific performance and order of injunction. Which of the following is correct vis-a-vis the provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
(A) C may be impleaded as a party to he suit under Rule 3 of Order 1
(B) C may be impleaded as a party to the suit under Rule 8A of Order 1
(C) C may be impleaded as a party to the suit under Rule 10(2) of Order 1
(D) C cannot be impleaded as a party to the pending suit; however, the transfer of the suit property to C can be challenged in another suit
78. Which of the following cases is reckoned as landmark case on the issue of privity of contract?
(A) Balfour v. Balfour (1919)
(B) Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co. (1893)
(C) Dunlop Pneumatic Tyre Co. Ltd. v. Selfridge & Co. (1915)
(D) None of the above
79. Kedar Nath v. State of Bihar is a landmark case on ……….of the Indian Penal Code.
(A) Section 304 A
(B) Section 124 A
(C) Section 375
(D) None of the above
80. In which of the proceedings under the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 the High Court may call for the record of any case which has been decided by any court subordinate to such High Court and in which no appeal lies thereto?
(A) Reference
(B) Review
(C) Revision
(D) All of the above
81. A intentionally and falsely leads B to believe that certain land belongs to A and thereby induces B to buy and pay for it. The land afterwards becomes the property of A, and thereof A seeks to set aside the sale on the ground that at the time of the sale, he had no title. A is not allowed to prove his want of the title under of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
(A) Section 115
(B) Section 116
(C) Section 117
(D) None of the above
82. Which of the following inter alia, is true about release of accused under Section 169 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973?
(A) Accused may be released, if upon an investigation it appears that there is not sufficient evidence for commission of an offence
(B) Accused may be released, if upon an investigation it appears that there is not reasonable ground of suspicion to justify the forwarding of the accused to a Magistrate
(C) Accused may be released with or without bond to appear, if and when so required before a Magistrate
(D) All of the above is correct
83. B, a broker at Kolkata, by the orders of A, a merchant there, contracts with C for the purchase of 10 casks of oil for A. Afterwards A refuses to receive the oil, and repudiates the contract altogether. Which of the following would be correct legally in the given situation?
(A) C may sue B for the damages, costs and incurred expenses successfully
(B) C may sue A successfully but not B
(C) B may sue A for repudiation of the contract
(D) None of the above is correct
84. A sues B for money due on a bond. The execution of bond is admitted, but B says that it was obtained by frauds which A denies. If no evidence is given on either side, then
(A) The facts of the case would remain inconclusive, so the case can’t be resolved
(B) A would succeed in case
(C) B would succeed in case
(D) Burden of proof of the disputed fact lies both on A and B
85. Except for some exceptions that may be there, which of the following agreements are void?
(A) Agreements in restraint of trade
(B) Agreements in restraint of legal proceedings
(C) Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or capable of being made certain
(D) Agreements without consideration
86. Evidence under the Indian Evidence Act means and includes
(A) All statements which the court permits or requires to be made before it by witnesses, in relation to matters of fact under inquiry
(B) All documents including electronic produced for the inspection of the court
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) and (B) above
87. In which of the following offences under Indian Penal Code previous sanction under Section 197 of the Criminal Procedure Code 1973 is required for court to take cognizance for offence alleged to be committed by judges and public servants?
(A) Any offence alleged to have been committed under Section 166A, Section 166B
(B) Any offence alleged to have been committed under Sections 354, 354A, 354B, 354C or 354D
(C) Any offence alleged to have been committed under Section 300
(D) Any offence alleged to have been committed under Section 509
88. The rarest of rare case doctrine on the sentencing of the death penalty was evolved by the Supreme Court in which case?
(A) Bachan Singh Vs. State of Punjab
(B) Abhayanand Mishra Vs. State of Bihar
(C) State of Maharashtra Vs. Mohd. Yakub
(D) None of these
89. Gurbaksh Singh Sibbia and Others v. State of Punjab (1980) is a landmark case on the issue of
(A) When bail may taken in case of non-bailable offence
(B) Grant of bail to person apprehending arrest
(C) Special powers of High Court or Court of Session regarding bail
(D) None of the above
90. Which of the following acts is not specified under Section 17 of the Indian Contract Act with reference to fraud?
(A) The active concealment of fact by one having knowledge or belief of the fact
(B) A promise made without any intention of performing it
(C) Act of connivance to enter in unlawful agreement
(D) The suggestion, as a fact, of that which is not true, by one who does not believe it to be true
91. ”Warrant case” under the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 means a case relating to an offence punishable with
(A) Death
(B) Imprisonment for life
(C) Imprisonment for a term exceeding two years
(D) All of the above
92. Accident in doing a lawful act may not be an offence
(A) if it has happened by only accident or misfortune
(B) if it has happened without any criminal intention or knowledge
(C) if it has happened while doing of a lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful means and with proper care and caution
(D) if all the three components as stated above are present
93. Hardeep Singh v. State of Punjab and Others (2014) is a landmark case on the issue of
(A) Power to court to proceed against other persons appearing to be guilty of offence
(B) Withdrawal from prosecution
(C) Procedure in case of accused being lunatic
(D) Framing of charge
94. A, a singer contracts with B, the manager of a theatre to sing at his theatre for two nights in every week during the next two months, and B engages her and agrees to pay her a hundred rupees for each night’s performance. On the sixth night, A wilfully absents herself from the theatre and B in consequence rescinds the contract.
Which of the following legal consequences may follow thereof?
(A) B may refuse to pay A for the performances of five nights and further sue A for compensation for loss of business on the sixth night
(B) B must pay A for the five nights on which she had sung
(C) A may sue B for unilaterally rescinding the contract
(D) None of the above legal consequences may follow correctly
95. Which of the following is correct about admissions under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
(A) Admissions are conclusive proof of the matters admitted
(B) Admissions can only be made by the party to the proceeding
(C) Admissions may operate as Estoppels
(D) All of the above are correct
96. The rule that once a matter is finally decided by a Court of competent jurisdiction, no party can be permitted to reopen it in a subsequent litigation”, is based on the doctrine of
(A) Rule of Estoppel
(B) Principle of Res judicata
(C) Doctrine of Stare decisis
(D) None of the above
97. Which of the following amounts to a criminal conspiracy?
(A) An agreement between two or more persons to do or cause to be done an illegal act
(B) An agreement between two or more persons to do or cause to be done an act which is not illegal by illegal means
(C) An agreement between two or more persons to do or cause to be done to commit an offence
(D) All of the above
98. In the case of State of UP v. Deoman Upadhyaya (1960), the Supreme Court had considered and upheld the Constitutionality of which of the following provisions of the Indian Evidence Act?
(A) Section 25
(B) Section 26
(C) Section 27
(D) Section 28
99. In a contract of guarantee, between the creditor and principal debtor, the surety is
(A) Not entitled for any consideration
(B) Entitled for consideration either from
(C) the principal debtor or the creditor content with anything borne or promise made for the benefit of principal debtor, which is a sufficient consideration for surety
(D) Exempted from any contractual obligation
100. Evidence may be given
(A) of the facts in issue
(B) of the relevant facts
(C) of the facts in issue and the relevant facts
(D) of the facts in issue, relevant facts and of the contested questions of law
Answer Keys
1. D
2. B
3. B
4. A
5. A
6. C
7. A
8. C
9. D
10. D
11. D
12. D
13. B
14. C
15. A
16. B
17. A
18. A
19. A
20. C
21. A
22. C
23. A
24. C
25. B
26. A
27. B
28. D
29. C
30. B
31. D
32. A
33. B
34. C
35. B
36. C
37. A
38. A
39. B
40. A
41. D
42. B
43. B
44. B
45. A
46. C
47. A
48. C
49. C
50. D
51. D
52. D
53. D
54. D
55. A
56. D
57. B
58. D
59. D
60. B
61. B
62. D
63. A
64. B
65. C
66. A
67. D
68. B
69. B
70. A
71. D
72. B
73. C
74. C
75. C
76. D
77. C
78. C
79. B
80. C
81. A
82. B
83. A
84. B
85. D
86. C
87. C
88. A
89. B
90. C
91. D
92. D
93. A
94. B
95. C
96. B
97. C
98. C
99. C
100. C