Legal Bites presents the CLAT PG Revision Mock Test – December 2026, designed to help aspirants consolidate their preparation, revisit important legal concepts and assess their readiness for the upcoming examination.
This revision mock features a carefully curated selection of questions from the Legal Bites CLAT PG Mock Tests published between January and November 2026. Bringing together questions on important legal principles, landmark judgments and core subjects of law, it offers aspirants an opportunity to revisit previously tested concepts and strengthen their understanding through focused revision.
More than just a practice exercise, this revision mock serves as a comprehensive self-assessment tool, helping candidates evaluate their conceptual understanding, improve accuracy, strengthen time management and identify areas that require further attention. Revisiting previously attempted questions also helps reinforce retention and build confidence in applying legal principles.
Revision is as important as preparation. Attempt the CLAT PG Revision Mock Test – December 2026, evaluate your progress and give your preparation a final push with Legal Bites.
CLAT PG Mock Legal Practice Questions
December 2026
I. Law is an important tool of social transformation. It is often described as the vehicle of social change. This is the basic idea upon which the Sociological school of jurisprudence rests upon. The sociological approach to study is concerned with how law affects the society and vice-versa. It focuses on the study relating to how social developments affect legal institutions, law as a form of social control, the interaction between legal cultures and how law drives social change. As far as India is considered, the Sociological school of jurisprudence has much relevance in terms of realizing the social and economic goals. In each field of life, reforms are brought about by the law makers of the Country. To the same the judiciary in India had contributed a lot. Judicial activism in India has done a tremendous job in bringing about positive changes in the various spheres of life.
[Extracted from Sreelakshmi K. S., “Recent Judgements Upholding Sociological Jurisprudence,” Indian Journal of Integrated Research in Law, Vol. III, Issue III]
1. The Sociological School of Jurisprudence primarily views law as:
A. A command of the sovereign backed by sanction
B. A body of moral principles derived from nature
C. An instrument of social control and social change
D. A closed logical system of rules
Answer: C
2. Roscoe Pound’s concept of “Social Engineering” primarily involves:
A. Mechanical application of statutes
B. Balancing competing social interests through law
C. Absolute supremacy of individual liberty
D. Elimination of judicial discretion
Answer: B
3. Which thinker emphasised that the “centre of gravity of legal development lies not in legislation or judicial decisions but in society itself”?
A. Roscoe Pound
B. Leon Duguit
C. Eugen Ehrlich
D. Savigny
Answer: C
4. According to Roscoe Pound, the Interest Theory classifies interests into how many categories?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
Answer: B
5. Leon Duguit, who propounded the Theory of Social Solidarity, was a:
A. French jurist
B. German jurist
C. English jurist
D. American jurist
Answer: A
II. The basis of Austin’s legal theory is his description of the sovereign as a clear and supreme political power whose orders are always followed. In criminal law, the practical equivalent of Austin’s sovereign is usually the legislature or the state, which creates criminal laws and defines penalties. Constitutionally, the power to define crimes and punishments belongs to those recognised by constitutional and legal criteria as qualified legislators. These organisations have the power to create binding legal orders, hence this institutional delegation fits Austin’s concept of sovereignty. But Austin’s rigid and single reading is very different from the sovereignty paradigm operating in contemporary liberal democracies. All of which distribute and restrict the use of legislative and executive power, contemporary legal systems are defined by constitutionalism, the separation of powers, judicial scrutiny, and the rule of law. Organised discourse, controlled by procedural safeguards and substantive limits, shapes legislation not the only domain of individual choice. Austin’s theory falls short in dealing with the complexity of modern democratic administration and the various normative origins shaping the legal order. Furthermore, the reading and application of criminal laws could include judicial discretion, adding another layer of power that cannot be readily simplified to fit a sovereign’s orders. All of which influence the character and degree of criminal liability, judges read laws, settle uncertainties, and build common law ideas. These court actions show that legal standards in criminal law are not only published but also created and contested inside institutional structures. Though simple, Austin’s sovereign-command model does not cover the institutional diversity and moral dynamism natural in criminal law creation.
[Extracted from Saif Hussain & Rishi Bhargava, Rishi, “Reassessing Command: The Relevance of John Austin’s Legal Positivism in Contemporary Criminal Law.” International Journal for Multidisciplinary Research (IJFMR), Vol. 7, Issue 3, May–June 2025]
6. According to Austin, law is primarily:
A. A set of moral principles
B. A custom accepted by society
C. A command of the sovereign backed by sanction
D. A judicial precedent
Answer: C
7. Austin’s theory of law is popularly known as:
A. Social contract theory
B. Command theory of law
C. Pure theory of law
D. Realist theory
Answer: B
8. According to the passage, Austin’s concept of the sovereign is primarily characterised by:
A. A supreme political authority whose commands are habitually obeyed
B. A power that derives authority from constitutional morality
C. An institution subject to judicial review and separation of powers
D. A democratic body limited by procedural safeguards
Answer: A
9. Which of the following best reflects the author’s criticism of Austin’s model?
A. It ignores the moral basis of punishment
B. It overemphasises judicial creativity
C. It is too rigid to explain distributed and limited power
D. It denies the role of the legislature in criminal law
Answer: C
10. According to the passage, judges contribute to criminal law by:
A. Issuing commands like the sovereign
B. Acting outside institutional structures
C. Replacing the legislature in defining crimes
D. Interpreting statutes and resolving ambiguities
Answer: D
III. The United Nations was established by the Charter of the United Nations and Statute of the International Court of Justice.
The Charter was signed on 26 June 1945 by the representatives of 50 countries; Poland signed on 15 October 1945. There were 51 Founding Members in 1945. The founding members of the United Nations are the countries that were invited to participate in the 1945 San Francisco Conference at which the UN Charter and Statute of the ICJ was adopted. Participation was determined by virtue of having signed or adhered to the Declaration by United Nations (1942) or as approved at the Conference.
In accordance with Article 110, the Charter entered into force on 24 October 1945, after ratification by the five permanent members of the Security Council and a majority of the other countries. Twenty-two countries subsequently deposited their instruments of ratification. The table below reflects the pattern of ratification: first the five permanent members, then the other countries that ratified by 24 October, and then the remaining countries.
Since 1945, some of the Founding Members have changed their names, others have been dissolved and new states have succeeded them.
[Extracted from United Nations Official Website – Founding Member States]
11. The United Nations was formally established by which legal instruments?
A. UN Charter and Universal Declaration of Human Rights
B. UN Charter and Statute of the International Court of Justice
C. Geneva Conventions and UN Charter
D. Covenant of League of Nations
Answer: B
12. The UN Charter was signed on:
A. 24 October 1945
B. 15 October 1945
C. 26 June 1945
D. 1 January 1942
Answer: C
13. Which country signed the UN Charter later than the others?
A. France
B. Poland
C. USSR
D. China
Answer: B
14. The San Francisco Conference is significant because:
A. It adopted the Universal Declaration of Human Rights
B. It marked the dissolution of the League of Nations
C. It adopted the UN Charter and Statute of the ICJ
D. It established the Security Council
Answer: C
15. Which of the following statements best reflects the legal significance of Article 110 of the UN Charter?
A. It defines the powers of the Security Council
B. It governs the admission of new members
C. It establishes the International Court of Justice
D. It lays down conditions for the Charter’s entry into force
Answer: D
IV. Territorial asylum refers to asylum granted by a State within its own territory to persons fleeing persecution or danger. It is regarded as an aspect of State sovereignty. The Convention on Territorial Asylum, adopted at Caracas on 28 March 1954, affirmed this principle. Article 1 of the Convention provides that every State has the sovereign right to admit into its territory any persons it considers appropriate, and the exercise of this right cannot be challenged by another State.
The principle was further reinforced by the Declaration on Territorial Asylum adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 1967. Article 1 of the Declaration states that asylum granted by a State, in the exercise of its sovereignty, to persons entitled to seek protection under Article 14 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, must be respected by all other States.
In addition, Article 3 of the Declaration embodies the principle of non-refoulement. It provides that no person seeking or enjoying asylum should be rejected at the frontier, returned, or expelled to a territory where there are substantial grounds for fearing persecution or threats to life, liberty, or physical integrity. This safeguard has also been incorporated into Articles 31, 32, and 33 of the 1951 Convention Relating to the Status of Refugees, which protect refugees against penalties for illegal entry, arbitrary expulsion, and forcible return to territories where they may face persecution.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from Soumya Singh, “Asylum”, International Journal of Legal Developments and Allied Issues, World Human Rights Review Edition, Vol. 3, Issue 3, May 2017, The Law Brigade (Publishing) Group]
16. Territorial asylum refers to:
A. Asylum granted in embassies and consulates
B. Asylum granted by a State within its own territory
C. Asylum granted by international organizations
D. Asylum granted on the high seas
Answer: B
17. The Convention on Territorial Asylum was adopted at Caracas in:
A. 1945
B. 1948
C. 1951
D. 1954
Answer: D
18. Which of the following is NOT a protection generally associated with the principle of non-refoulement?
A. Protection against return to persecution
B. Protection against expulsion to danger
C. Protection against rejection at the frontier
D. Automatic grant of citizenship
Answer: D
19. In the Asylum Case (Colombia v. Peru, 1950), the International Court of Justice dealt with:
A. Territorial asylum
B. Diplomatic asylum
C. Refugee status determination
D. Extradition treaty interpretation
Answer: B
20. The immediate context for India’s decision to grant asylum to the Dalai Lama was:
A. Chinese crackdown in Lhasa
B. Sino-Indian War
C. Korean War
D. Formation of the People’s Republic of China
Answer: A
V. The doctrine of arbitrariness as a facet of Article 14, capable of being used to test and strike down legislation, received its most authoritative affirmation in Shayara Bano v. Union of India. A Constitution Bench of this Court held that Triple Talaq was manifestly arbitrary, and in doing so, brought to rest any remaining divergence or controversy about whether manifest arbitrariness is a valid ground to invalidate legislation. In paragraph 84, the Court observed:
“Arbitrariness in legislation is very much a facet of unreasonableness in Articles 19(2) to (6), as has been laid down in several judgements of this Court…therefore, there is no reason why arbitrariness cannot be used in aforesaid sense to strike down legislation under Article 14 as well”
……………….Most recently, in Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union of India, the validity of the Electoral Bond Scheme and provisions of the Finance Act, 2017 were challenged. A Constitution Bench of this Court held them to be unconstitutional and struck them down, reaffirming that manifest arbitrariness remains a ground available to Courts to invalidate legislation under Article 14.
[This extract is taken from Anurag Krishna Sinha v. State of Bihar & Anr., (Civil Appeal No. 13581 of 2025)]
21. The doctrine of manifest arbitrariness as a ground to invalidate legislation under Article 14 was authoritatively affirmed in:
A. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
B. Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India
C. Shayara Bano v. Union of India
D. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
Answer: C
22. In Shayara Bano v. Union of India, the Court struck down:
A. Triple Talaq
B. Electoral Bond Scheme
C. Section 377 IPC
D. Section 66A IT Act
Answer: A
23. According to Shayara Bano, arbitrariness in legislation is a facet of:
A. Judicial review only
B. Federalism
C. Separation of powers
D. Unreasonableness under Articles 19(2) to 19(6)
Answer: D
24. The doctrine of manifest arbitrariness primarily strengthens which constitutional guarantee?
A. Equality before Law
B. Freedom of Speech
C. Freedom of Religion
D. Constitutional Remedies
Answer: A
25. Consider the following statements regarding Article 14:
1. Manifest arbitrariness is a facet of Article 14.
2. Manifest arbitrariness can be invoked only against executive action.
3. The Electoral Bond Scheme was struck down partly on grounds of arbitrariness.
Options:
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
VI. Mr. Sethi contended that the Revenue’s preliminary objection, alleging that the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) [CIT(A)] had admitted additional evidence in contravention of Rule 46A of the Income Tax Rules, 1962, was without merit. He argued that the assessment order for Assessment Year (AY) 1999–2000 had already allowed the deduction under Section 35D of the Income Tax Act, and the assessment orders for the subsequent years could not be treated as “additional evidence” because they were already part of the Revenue’s own records. According to him, such material was merely clarificatory in nature and did not fall within the scope of Rule 46A.
In support of this contention, Mr. Sethi relied upon Sri Shankar Khandasari Sugar Mills v. CIT, (1992) 193 ITR 669 (Kar), where the assessee had produced a sales tax assessment order for the first time before the CIT(A). Although the appellate authority declined to consider it on the ground that it constituted additional evidence, the Karnataka High Court held that such refusal was unjustified. He also placed reliance on CIT v. Lakshmi Vilas Bank, (2010) 329 ITR 591 (Mad), to reinforce the proposition that documents already forming part of official records or having a clarificatory character cannot be rejected as additional evidence under Rule 46A.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from VNG Automotive Pvt. Ltd. v. Assistant Commissioner of Income Tax, ITA 795/2004]
26. The Revenue objected to the order of the CIT(A) primarily on the ground that:
A. The deduction under Section 35D was wrongly granted.
B. The CIT(A) lacked jurisdiction to hear the appeal.
C. The CIT(A) admitted additional evidence in violation of Rule 46A of the Income Tax Rules, 1962.
D. The assessment order for AY 1999–2000 was barred by limitation.
Answer: C
27. According to Mr. Sethi, the assessment orders for the subsequent years could not be treated as additional evidence because they:
A. Were obtained after the appeal was filed.
B. Had already been accepted by the assessee.
C. Were certified copies issued by the High Court.
D. Formed part of the Revenue’s own records.
Answer: D
28. The decision in Sri Shankar Khandasari Sugar Mills v. CIT was relied upon to establish that:
A. Refusal to consider a document merely because it was produced before the CIT(A) for the first time may be unjustified.
B. Sales tax assessments bind income tax authorities.
C. Section 35D deductions are mandatory.
D. Rule 46A is unconstitutional.
Answer: A
29. The central controversy in the passage concerns:
A. Scope and application of Rule 46A relating to additional evidence before the CIT(A).
B. Validity of reassessment proceedings.
C. Interpretation of Section 35D.
D. Limitation under the Income Tax Act.
Answer: A
30. The judgment in CIT v. Lakshmi Vilas Bank was cited by Mr. Sethi to:
A. Challenge the constitutional validity of Rule 46A.
B. Support the contention regarding the treatment of clarificatory material.
C. Establish that deductions under Section 35D are perpetual.
D. Hold that appellate authorities cannot rely on Revenue records.
Answer: B
VII. The legislative history illuminates the purpose of these saving provisions. The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Bill, 2004 was introduced in the Rajya Sabha on 20.12.2004. The Statement of Objects and Reasons noted that the retention of the Mitakshara coparcenary without including females “contributes to her discrimination on the ground of gender” and “has led to oppression and negation of her fundamental right of equality guaranteed by the Constitution.” The Bill sought to remove this discrimination by giving equal rights to daughters. The Standing Committee of Parliament recommended, inter alia, that the partition of Hindu family property should be properly defined in the Amendment Act, and suggested that partition for all purposes should be either by registered documents or by decree of court. This recommendation was incorporated in the Explanation to Section 6(5).
[Extracted from B.S. Lalitha and Others v. Bhuvanesh and Others, Arising out of SLP (C) No. 23709 of 2024]
31. The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Bill, 2004 was first introduced in:
A. Lok Sabha on 15 August 2004
B. Rajya Sabha on 20 December 2004
C. Lok Sabha on 20 December 2004
D. Rajya Sabha on 9 September 2005
Answer: B
32. Which constitutional value was expressly emphasised in the Statement of Objects and Reasons of the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Bill, 2004?
A. Freedom of trade
B. Equality between men and women
C. Religious freedom
D. Federalism
Answer: B
33. Which Supreme Court decision authoritatively held that a daughter is a coparcener by birth irrespective of whether the father was alive on 9 September 2005?
A. Danamma v. Amar (2018)
B. Prakash v. Phulavati (2016)
C. Vineeta Sharma v. Rakesh Sharma (2020)
D. Gurupad Khandappa Magdum v. Hirabai Khandappa Magdum (1978)
Answer: C
34. Who ordinarily manages the affairs of a Hindu Undivided Family?
A. The Karta
B. The eldest family member irrespective of circumstances
C. The family priest
D. The guardian appointed by the court
Answer: A
35. Which of the following best explains why a Hindu Undivided Family is said to arise by “status”?
A. It comes into existence automatically by birth into the family.
B. It requires execution of a family agreement.
C. It depends upon ownership of ancestral property.
D. It must be recognised by the State Government.
Answer: B
VIII. Mr. Ankit Jain, learned Senior Counsel appearing for the original applicants, relied upon the affidavit filed by the appellant units to contend that while Section 25(7) of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 provides for a deemed grant of Consent to Operate (CTO), Section 21(4) of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 contains no corresponding provision for deemed approval. On that basis, it was argued that the CTO claimed by the appellant units could not be sustained in law. Learned Senior Counsel further submitted that the appellant units were also required to obtain prior Environmental Clearance (EC) in accordance with the Office Memorandum dated 07.07.2021 and the law laid down in Pahwa Plastics.
The contention, however, cannot be accepted. The argument regarding the absence of a deemed approval under the Air Act pertains only to the process of grant of CTO. In the present case, the grant of CTO itself has not been disputed by the respective Pollution Control Boards (PCBs), which are the competent statutory authorities. Once the competent authorities have not questioned the validity of the CTO, the alleged procedural infraction under the Air Act loses its relevance. The issue, therefore, is not germane to the controversy before this Court and the contention is accordingly rejected.
[Extracted with edits from Neetu Solvents v. Vineet Nagar & Ors., Civil Appeal No. 2881 of 2021]
36. The original applicants further contended that the appellant units were required to obtain prior Environmental Clearance in accordance with:
A. The Forest Conservation Act, 1980
B. Office Memorandum dated 07.07.2021 and Pahwa Plastics
C. The Environment (Protection) Rules, 1986 only
D. The Hazardous Waste Rules, 2016
Answer: B
37. Pollution Control Boards primarily function as:
A. Legislative bodies
B. Constitutional authorities
C. Statutory regulatory authorities
D. Judicial tribunals
Answer: C
38. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is constituted under which provision of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974?
A. Section 3
B. Section 4
C. Section 16
D. Section 17
Answer: A
39. Under the Air Act, the State Pollution Control Board may:
A. Levy income tax
B. Inspect industrial premises and collect samples
C. Amend the Constitution
D. Grant environmental clearance
Answer: B
40. Prior consent of the State Pollution Control Board is required before:
A. Establishing or operating an industrial plant in an Air Pollution Control Area
B. Purchasing industrial land
C. Exporting industrial products
D. Registering a company
Answer: A
IX. We also clarify the role of the Labour Court in the post-remand proceedings. Once the domestic enquiry was found defective and the Respondent-management was permitted to prove the misconduct before the Labour Court, the Labour Court was required to decide whether the charges stood proved on the evidence adduced before it. Any observation by the Labour Court describing the misconduct as grave or serious could not substitute the independent satisfaction of the competent authority on the question of penalty. Similarly, the finding that the earlier show-cause notice dated 25.04.2008 was legal and proper could not relieve the competent authority of its obligation to consider the findings which ultimately survived after remand and to apply its own mind on the quantum of punishment.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from Surekha Domaji Bele v. Executive Engineer, Testing Division, MSEDCL, 2026 INSC 639]
41. According to the passage, once the domestic enquiry was found defective and the management was permitted to prove misconduct before the Labour Court, the primary function of the Labour Court was to:
A. Determine the appropriate punishment for the employee
B. Decide whether the charges stood proved on the evidence adduced before it
C. Validate the findings of the defective domestic enquiry
D. Reinstate the employee without examining the evidence
Answer: B
42. The Labour Court’s observation that the misconduct was “grave or serious” could not:
A. Be considered by the management at all
B. Be recorded in its decision
C. Substitute the independent satisfaction of the competent authority regarding penalty
D. Be challenged by the employee
Answer: C
43. Which of the following best describes a Labour Court exercising adjudicatory functions?
A. A purely administrative body
B. A legislative body
C. A specialised adjudicatory forum dealing with industrial disputes
D. A criminal court exercising jurisdiction under the CrPC alone
Answer: C
44. A Labour Court dealing with dismissal ordinarily examines:
A. Only whether the dismissal letter was signed
B. The legality and justification of the disciplinary action within its statutory jurisdiction
C. Only the employee’s length of service
D. Only the employer’s financial condition
Answer: B
45. Which of the following correctly distinguishes a Labour Court from an ordinary civil court?
A. A Labour Court exercises specialised statutory jurisdiction over specified industrial disputes
B. A Labour Court possesses unlimited civil jurisdiction
C. A Labour Court is a criminal court
D. There is no distinction between the two
Answer: A
X. The appellants submitted that, having rendered continuous service for more than a decade, they were entitled to consideration for regularisation in accordance with the principles laid down by the Supreme Court in State of Karnataka v. Uma Devi. They contended that the State could not continue to avail itself of their services while denying them consideration for regularisation by taking advantage of the unequal bargaining position between the parties. Such treatment, according to the appellants, was inconsistent with the principles of equity and fairness and contrary to the constitutional mandate of ensuring dignity in public employment.
The appellants also questioned the validity of the condition in their appointment letters which barred them from claiming regularisation or permanent absorption. They argued that such a stipulation was opposed to public policy and, therefore, hit by Section 23 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. At the time of their initial appointment, the appellants were unemployed persons seeking employment and were consequently not in a position to bargain with the respondent-State on equal terms. They, therefore, lacked any real bargaining power or meaningful choice in accepting the conditions imposed upon them.
[Extracted with edits from Bhola Nath v. State of Jharkhand & Ors., SLP (Civil) No. 30762 of 2024]
46. An agreement whose object or consideration is opposed to public policy is:
A. Valid unless expressly prohibited by statute
B. Void
C. Voidable at the option of the weaker party
D. Enforceable with the permission of the court
Answer: B
47. Which of the following is NOT expressly mentioned in Section 23 as a ground for treating the consideration or object of an agreement as unlawful?
A. It is forbidden by law
B. It is fraudulent
C. It is opposed to public policy
D. The consideration is inadequate
Answer: D
48. Under Section 23 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the consideration or object of an agreement is lawful unless it:
A. Is inadequate in the opinion of the court
B. Is forbidden by law
C. Is not reduced to writing
D. Provides an advantage to only one party
Answer: B
49. Which Supreme Court decision was relied upon by the appellants in support of their claim?
A. State of Punjab v. Jagjit Singh
B. Secretary, State of Karnataka v. Uma Devi
C. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
D. D.S. Nakara v. Union of India
Answer: B
50. A agrees to sell his house to B for ₹10,000. What constitutes the consideration for A’s promise to sell the house?
A. B’s promise to pay ₹10,000
B. A’s ownership of the house
C. Delivery of possession of the house
D. Registration of the sale deed
Answer: A
XI. In this background, confining the entirety of the custodial interrogation to the Central Prison, Rajamahendravaram is neither justified nor sustainable on the facts of this case. The offence of custodial death in which the respondent-accused is arraigned is alleged to have been committed at, and in the vicinity of, Krishna Lanka Police Station, Vijayawada; the dead body of the deceased-victim remains untraced; the original hard disks of the CCTV system are yet to be recovered; and it is the specific case of the prosecution that discoveries under Section 23 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (erstwhile Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872) are imminent if the respondent-accused is properly interrogated. The efficacy of this procedure would undoubtedly be dependent upon the investigating officer being able to take the accused to the actual place of discovery, and not merely to interrogate him about it from a distance of 160 kilometers.
[Extracted from The State of Andhra Pradesh v. Suda Suresh Veera Venkata Naga Raju, arising out of SLP (Crl.) No. 12344 of 2026]
51. According to the passage, why was confinement of the entire custodial interrogation to Central Prison, Rajamahendravaram considered inappropriate?
A. Because custodial interrogation can never take place inside a prison
B. Because the alleged offence and possible places of discovery were located around Vijayawada
C. Because the accused had already confessed to the offence
D. Because the prison authorities refused to cooperate
Answer: B
52. Section 23 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, referred to in the passage, broadly corresponds to which provision of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
A. Section 24
B. Section 25
C. Section 27
D. Section 32
Answer: C
53. Which of the following remained unrecovered according to the passage?
A. The accused’s service records
B. The deceased’s mobile phone alone
C. The dead body and original CCTV hard disks
D. The police station diary
Answer: C
54. An accused in police custody says, “The stolen jewellery is hidden inside a box in my farmhouse.” Police recover the jewellery from the stated location. Which proposition is most accurate?
A. The relevant discovery-related information may be proved
B. The statement is wholly inadmissible merely because it was made in police custody
C. The entire statement automatically becomes a judicial confession
D. Recovery has no evidentiary relevance
Answer: A
55. A confession made in police custody may be proved when it is made in the immediate presence of:
A. A lawyer
B. A Magistrate
C. Two independent witnesses
D. A senior police officer
Answer: B
XII. According to this rule, when two persons are negligent, that one of them, who had the later opportunity of avoiding the accident by taking ordinary care should be liable for the loss. It means that if the defendant is negligent and the plaintiff having a later opportunity to avoid the consequences of the negligence of the defendant does not observe ordinary care, he cannot make the defendant liable for that. Similarly, if the last opportunity to avoid the accident is with the defendant, he will be liable for the whole of the loss to the plaintiff. The case of Davies v. Mann, explains the rule. In that case, the plaintiff fettered the forefeet of his donkey and left it on a narrow highway. The defendant was driving his wagon driven by horses too fast that it negligently ran over and killed the donkey. In spite of his own negligence, the plaintiff was held entitled to recover because the defendant had the ‘last opportunity’ to avoid the accident. If that were not so, said Parke, B, “a man might justify the driving over goods left on a public highway or even over a man lying asleep there, or purposely running against a carriage going on the wrong side of the road.” The above stated case was approved by the House of Lords in Radley v. L. & N. W.R. Ry. There the plaintiffs were the colliery proprietors and they also owned a bridge near the siding from under which trucks loaded with coal used to be taken by the defendants. One day, the plaintiffs loaded a truck so high that the same was obstructed by the bridge. Without trying to see what caused the obstruction, the defendants’ servant gave momentum to the engine and also got the overloaded truck pushed by many other trucks of the defendants to make the truck pass under the bridge.
[Extracted from R.K. Bangia’s The Law of Torts, revised by Dr. Narender Kumar, Allahabad Law Agency, Faridabad (Haryana)]
56. The “Last Opportunity Rule” is primarily associated with which branch of law?
A. Contract law
B. Law of Torts
C. Criminal law
D. Constitutional law
Answer: B
57. Which case is classically associated with the Last Opportunity Rule?
A. Rylands v. Fletcher
B. Donoghue v. Stevenson
C. Davies v. Mann
D. Ashby v. White
Answer: C
58. In Radley v. L. & N.W.R. Ry., the immediate difficulty arose because:
A. A railway signal had malfunctioned
B. A truck was loaded so high that it was obstructed by a bridge
C. A passenger entered a moving train
D. A railway employee negligently abandoned a wagon
Answer: B
59. According to the Last Opportunity Rule, where both parties have been negligent, liability generally falls upon:
A. The party who was negligent first
B. The party who suffered greater loss
C. The party who had the later opportunity to avoid the accident by exercising ordinary care
D. Both parties equally in every case
Answer: C
60. In Davies v. Mann, the plaintiff had negligently:
A. Driven his wagon at excessive speed
B. Left his donkey fettered on a highway
C. Failed to maintain a bridge
D. Left his horse unattended outside a stable
Answer: B
XIII. Once it is established that the distinction between relationship in the nature of marriage and marriage, in so far as protection against cruelty is concerned, does not satisfy Article 14, the next aspect is to harmonise the words of the section and its beneficial intent. We have already discussed earlier the approaches of literal interpretation and purposive interpretation. Although the conflict between these two approaches has been recognised as perennial, there is now a shift towards the latter. As put by Lord Millett ‘we are all purposive constructionists now. For beneficial legislations intended to remedy a social evil, the Court’s duty is to discern the intention of the legislature and advance the mischief rule to ensure the statute is not reduced to futility.
[Extracted from Dr. Lokesh B.H. & Ors. v. State of Karnataka & Anr. (2026 INSC 784)]
61. Which constitutional provision is primarily invoked in the passage to examine the distinction between marriage and a relationship in the nature of marriage?
A. Article 19
B. Article 21
C. Article 14
D. Article 25
Answer: C
62. According to the passage, what is the primary duty of courts when interpreting beneficial legislation intended to remedy a social evil?
A. To adopt the narrowest possible interpretation of statutory provisions
B. To strictly follow the grammatical meaning regardless of consequences
C. To disregard the statutory language and create new legal rights
D. To ascertain legislative intent and interpret the statute in a manner that advances its remedial purpose
Answer: D
63. Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the relationship between reasonable classification and arbitrariness under Article 14?
A. A classification satisfying the traditional two-pronged test is necessarily immune from every challenge based on arbitrariness.
B. The doctrine of arbitrariness applies exclusively to executive action and not legislation.
C. Article 14 prohibits class legislation but permits reasonable classification, while manifest arbitrariness may independently provide grounds for challenging legislation.
D. Any differentiation between individuals constitutes arbitrariness irrespective of legislative purpose.
Answer: C
64. In E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu (1974), the Supreme Court expanded the understanding of equality under Article 14. Which proposition best represents its constitutional significance?
A. Equality is confined to identifying similarly situated classes.
B. Arbitrariness and equality are antithetical, and arbitrary State action may offend Article 14.
C. Article 14 is applicable only where legislation expressly creates discriminatory classifications.
D. Administrative discretion is beyond judicial scrutiny unless mala fides are conclusively established.
Answer: B
65. In Tata Cellular v. Union of India (1994), the Supreme Court recognised which of the following as major grounds of judicial review of administrative action?
A. Illegality, irrationality and procedural impropriety
B. Legislative competence, repugnancy and severability
C. Proportionality, res judicata and estoppel
D. Natural justice, double jeopardy and legitimate expectation only
Answer: A
XIV. We are equally distressed by the news reports regarding the alleged gang rape and murder of a teenage girl in the Swaroop Nagar area of Delhi, where the police reportedly recovered the victim’s decomposed body from a field, in a partially scavenged state.
Furthermore, we take serious note of the recently reported incident involving the alleged sexual assault of a minor girl inside a moving sleeper bus, which law enforcement agencies failed to intercept while it traversed a distance of over 47 Km from Greater Noida to Delhi. One cannot help but draw painful parallels to the 2012 Nirbhaya case, calling into question whether systemic law enforcement mechanisms have made any meaningful progress in the decade since then.
[Extracted from In Re: Recent Rape Incidents in Delhi NCR, 2026 INSC 1063]
66. The 2012 Nirbhaya case led to significant reforms in India’s criminal law through which legislation?
A. Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2008
B. Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013
C. Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2018
D. Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012
Answer: B
67. Which landmark Supreme Court judgment recognised sexual harassment at the workplace as a violation of fundamental rights and laid down preventive guidelines?
A. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (1997)
B. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978)
C. Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017)
D. Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India (2018)
Answer: A
68. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which provision deals with the offence of gang rape?
A. Section 63
B. Section 64
C. Section 70
D. Section 74
Answer: C
69. Which committee was constituted by the Government of India following the 2012 Nirbhaya incident to recommend amendments to criminal laws relating to sexual offences?
A. Justice J.S. Verma Committee
B. Justice Malimath Committee
C. Justice B.N. Srikrishna Committee
D. Justice J.C. Shah Committee
Answer: A
70. The Nirbhaya Fund was announced by the Government of India in which Union Budget?
A. Union Budget 2011–12
B. Union Budget 2012–13
C. Union Budget 2013–14
D. Union Budget 2015–16
Answer: C
XV. It is well settled that while determining the authority by which an employee was appointed for the purposes of Article 311(1) of the Constitution, the court is required to ascertain the authority which in fact made the appointment with reference to the order of appointment and the statutory or regulatory framework governing such appointment. Once that authority is identified, the constitutional protection under Article 311(1) has to be examined with reference to the hierarchical position of the authority which subsequently passes the order of dismissal or removal.
[Extracted from Union of India & Ors. v. Ramdhani Prasad, 2026 INSC 1047]
71. Under Article 311(1), a government employee cannot be dismissed or removed by:
A. The authority that appointed the employee
B. An authority superior to the appointing authority
C. An authority subordinate to the appointing authority
D. The President or Governor
Answer: C
72. The requirement of giving a civil servant a reasonable opportunity of being heard under Article 311(2) primarily reflects which principle of natural justice?
A. Nemo judex in causa sua
B. Audi alteram partem
C. Res judicata
D. Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea
Answer: B
73. In which landmark case did the Supreme Court examine the scope of the exceptions to the requirement of a departmental inquiry under Article 311(2)?
A. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
B. Union of India v. Tulsiram Patel
C. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
D. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
Answer: B
74. Article 311 of the Constitution of India provides constitutional safeguards to:
A. Members of civil services of the Union or States, members of All India Services and persons holding civil posts under the Union or States
B. All employees working in public and private organisations
C. Members of the Armed Forces exclusively
D All persons holding political offices
Answer: A
75. Under Article 311(3) of the Constitution, who has the final authority to decide whether it is reasonably practicable to hold a departmental inquiry?
A. The President of India
B. The Supreme Court
C. The authority empowered to dismiss, remove or reduce the employee in rank
D. The Union Public Service Commission
Answer: C
XVI. The contention that the Respondents already possess a chamber and, therefore, have no genuine need for the premises in question, effectively seeks a judicial reassessment of the suitability of the accommodation available to them. Such an exercise would amount to replacing the landlord’s assessment of their own requirements with that of the Court. It is a settled principle of law that the landlord is the best judge of their requirements, and a tenant cannot dictate how the landlord should use the available premises. The Court’s role is limited to determining whether the requirement is bona fide and whether any reasonably suitable alternative accommodation is available. The Court cannot impose an alternative arrangement merely because the tenant considers it sufficient to meet the landlord’s needs.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from Naresh Kumar v. Sunny Kashyap & Anr., RC.REV. 330/2026]
76. Which of the following is NOT a mode of determination of a lease under Section 111 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
A. Efflux of time
B. Express surrender
C. Forfeiture
D. Mere desire of the landlord to recover possession
Answer: D
77. Under Section 107 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, which of the following leases must be made through a registered instrument?
A. A lease for six months
B. A lease from month to month
C. A lease for a term exceeding one year
D. A lease for eleven months
Answer: C
78. Under Section 108(a) of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the lessor is bound to disclose which of the following to the lessee?
A. Every minor defect in the property
B. Any material defect known to the lessor, unknown to the lessee, and not discoverable by ordinary care
C. Only defects relating to ownership
D. Only defects expressly mentioned in the lease agreement
Answer: B
79. Under Section 105 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, a lease involves the transfer of:
A. Ownership of immovable property
B. A right to enjoy immovable property
C. Absolute title to immovable property
D. A right to permanently dispose of immovable property
Answer: B
80. Under Section 108(q) of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, upon determination of the lease, the lessee is bound to:
A. Purchase the leased property
B. Put the lessor into possession of the property
C. Continue paying rent indefinitely
D. Transfer the lease to another tenant
Answer: B
XVII. On this aspect, the material relied upon by the respondents assumes significance. Their case is not confined to the fact that the petitioner married Sirajuddin. The material discloses a course of circumstances extending over several decades. The petitioner, originally known as Nanhki, married Sirajuddin and thereafter came to be known as Naimunnisha. She lived with him for a prolonged period; children were born from the relationship and bear Muslim names; the family register records her religion as Muslim; and other documents and inquiry material have been relied upon to show the identity under which she subsequently lived. These circumstances cannot be treated as conclusive individually, but neither can they be ignored when the Court is required to determine the factual question of continuing tribal identity.
[Extracted from Nanhki @ Naimunnisha v. State of U.P. and 3 Others, Writ-C No. 17043 of 2026]
81. Which constitutional provision empowers the State to make special provisions for the advancement of Scheduled Tribes?
A. Article 14
B. Article 15(4)
C. Article 19(1)(g)
D. Article 21
Answer: B
82. Which constitutional provision establishes the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes?
A. Article 338
B. Article 342
C. Article 340
D. Article 338A
Answer: D
83. Which of the following is essential for a valid Muslim marriage?
A. Compulsory registration before a Magistrate
B. Approval of a religious court
C. Performance of Saptapadi
D. Offer (Ijab) and acceptance (Qubul)
Answer: D
84. The term ‘Iddat’ under Muslim law refers to:
A. A compulsory marriage ceremony
B. A prescribed waiting period observed by a woman following divorce or the death of her husband
C. A form of inheritance
D. A mode of adoption
Answer: B
85. Which of the following is NOT a recognised form of dissolution of marriage under classical Muslim law?
A. Talaq
B. Khula
C. Mubarat
D. Saptapadi
Answer: D
XVIII. Mr. Saurav Roy, appearing for the Appellant, contended that Respondent No. 2 had incorrectly calculated the limitation period and the additional condonable period by overlooking the word “notwithstanding” in Section 61 and the expression “within forty-five days from the date of receipt of such order” in Section 62(1) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), read with Sections 421 and 423 of the Companies Act, 2013. He argued that Section 62 of the IBC provides a right of appeal before the Supreme Court, subject to a maximum limitation period of sixty days, including the condonable period. According to the Appellant, limitation begins from the date of receipt of the order rather than the date of its pronouncement. Therefore, since the order was received on 11 October 2023 and the appeal was filed on 21 November 2023, the appeal was filed within forty-one days and was consequently within the prescribed limitation period.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from The Assistant Commissioner of Central Tax, CGST Division v. Sreenivasa Rao Ravinuthala & Anr., Civil Appeal No. 7882 of 2023]
86. Section 421 of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with:
A. Appeal from orders of the Appellate Tribunal
B. Appeal from orders of the Tribunal
C. Powers of the National Company Law Tribunal
D. Constitution of the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal
Answer: B
87. Under Section 421(2) of the Companies Act, 2013, no appeal shall lie to the Appellate Tribunal against:
A. An ex parte order of the Tribunal
B. An interim order of the Tribunal
C. An order made by the Tribunal with the consent of parties
D. An order passed against a company director
Answer: C
88. What is the prescribed limitation period for filing an appeal under Section 421(3) of the Companies Act, 2013?
A. 30 days
B. 45 days
C. 60 days
D. 90 days
Answer: B
89. Section 423 of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with:
A. Appeal from orders of the Tribunal
B. Appeal to the Supreme Court
C. Review of orders of the Appellate Tribunal
D. Powers of the National Company Law Tribunal
Answer: B
90. An appeal under Section 423 of the Companies Act, 2013 may be filed before the Supreme Court on:
A. Any question of law arising out of the Appellate Tribunal’s order
B. Any question of fact
C. Any question of public importance, irrespective of its connection with the order
D. Any question relating exclusively to company management
Answer: A
XIX. The present proceedings relate to the continuing degradation of the Jojari-Bandi-Luni river ecosystem and the need for coordinated, effective and time-bound measures for its restoration and protection.
By its order dated 29th September 2026, the Court considered the reports and recommendations of the High-Level Ecosystem Oversight Committee, the status reports submitted by the State of Rajasthan and the submissions of the parties. The Court noted persistent sources of pollution, inadequate pollution-control infrastructure and shortcomings in enforcement. Despite earlier directions, several issues remained unresolved, necessitating a proactive and preventive approach to restoring the river ecosystem.
Accordingly, the Court issued directions for removing unauthorised discharge points, taking action against illegal industrial activities and mining, reviewing guidelines for captive Effluent Treatment Plants, strengthening effluent treatment infrastructure, preserving the natural flow of rivers and completing remediation measures. The State was further directed to coordinate with the Committee and finalise a Comprehensive Resolution Plan containing specific timelines and measurable milestones.
[Extracted with edits from In Re: 2 Million Lives at Risk, Contamination in Jojari River, Rajasthan (2026 INSC 1203)]
91. The proceedings concerning the Jojari-Bandi-Luni river ecosystem primarily relate to:
A. Inter-State water-sharing disputes
B. Continuing environmental degradation and restoration of the river ecosystem
C. Construction of hydroelectric projects
D. Acquisition of land for industrial development
Answer: B
92. Which Committee submitted reports and recommendations concerning the restoration of the Jojari-Bandi-Luni river ecosystem?
A. Central Water Commission
B. National River Conservation Authority
C. High-Level Ecosystem Oversight Committee
D. National Biodiversity Authority
Answer: C
93. Which State was directed to coordinate with the Committee and finalise a Comprehensive Resolution Plan for the restoration of the river ecosystem?
A. Gujarat
B. Rajasthan
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Maharashtra
Answer: B
94. The Court directed the State to finalise a Comprehensive Resolution Plan containing:
A. Financial compensation for industrial operators only
B. Specific timelines and measurable milestones
C. Provisions for transferring river management to private companies
D. Guidelines exclusively concerning agricultural irrigation
Answer: B
95. Which of the following statutes primarily provides for the prevention and control of water pollution in India?
A. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
B. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
C. Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
D. Biological Diversity Act, 2002
Answer: A
XX. In administrative law, the present situation represents a classic example of a colourable exercise of delegated power, where an authority attempts to achieve indirectly what it lacks the legal competence to accomplish directly. A delegate entrusted with the power to grant exemptions cannot transform that authority into a power to impose or expand taxation. The power to exempt and the power to tax operate on fundamentally different constitutional bases. The essential legislative function of imposing a tax or duty lies with the legislature and must be expressly provided through a valid charging provision. The executive cannot, through subordinate legislation or fiscal notifications, widen the scope of taxation under the guise of modifying or tailoring exemptions.
It is therefore necessary to reaffirm that delegated legislation remains subject to judicial review, not only on the ground of substantive unreasonableness but also with respect to the purpose for which the power is exercised. When a delegated authority departs from the dominant purpose underlying the grant of power and employs it to achieve an objective never contemplated by the parent statute, such action becomes ultra vires. Fiscal notifications enjoy no special immunity from judicial scrutiny; they stand on the same footing as any other form of subordinate legislation and must conform to the limits prescribed by the enabling statute and the Constitution.
[Extracted, with edits and revision, from the judgment in Adani Power Ltd. & Anr. v. Union of India & Ors., 2026 INSC 1]
96. Which of the following best explains why exemption power cannot be treated as taxation power?
A. Exemption power is judicial in nature
B. Exemption power belongs to courts
C. Taxation requires a legislative charging provision
D. Exemption power applies only to indirect taxes
Answer: C
97. Which of the following best describes the concept of ultra vires delegated legislation?
A. Delegated legislation passed by Parliament
B. Delegated legislation beyond the authority of the parent statute
C. Delegated legislation approved by courts
D. Delegated legislation passed during emergency
Answer: B
98. Which of the following is an essential legislative function that cannot ordinarily be delegated?
A. Fixing procedural details
B. Making rules
C. Issuing notifications
D. Determining legislative policy
Answer: D
99. Which court has wider powers of judicial review?
A. High Court under Article 226
B. Tribunal
C. District Court
D. Consumer Forum
Answer: A
100. “Irrationality” in judicial review is associated with:
A. Doctrine of severability
B. Wednesbury principle
C. Doctrine of eclipse
D. Doctrine of pleasure
Answer: B
XXI. The Court strongly criticised the growing trend of adopting a “consider jurisprudence” approach, whereby courts merely direct authorities to “consider” a matter instead of granting concrete relief. Such an approach, according to the Court, is counterproductive and undermines the effective administration of justice. It emphasised that when a legal right is clearly established and justified, relief must necessarily follow. Constitutional and statutory remedies are not meant for academic or theoretical exercise; rather, they exist to provide real and timely relief. The Court cautioned that balancing of equities should not be misused as a ground to delay or avoid granting relief. It further highlighted that beyond written laws, the strength of the legal system lies in its practices—habits shaped by shared values and beliefs that give life to the rule of law. Therefore, remedies must be simple, effective, and efficient, reflecting both the spirit and purpose of law.
Applying these principles to the case at hand, the Court observed that the High Court had failed to issue a clear and categorical direction regarding the existence of the right, its violation, and the precise obligations of the government. Such lack of clarity leaves room for ambiguity and non-compliance. The Court stressed that judicial orders must be explicit, leaving the State with no option but to comply, appeal, or face contempt proceedings. It also criticised the increasing misuse of contempt jurisdiction as a shortcut to obtain relief, especially when appealable orders already exist. In the present case, the government had passed a detailed order dated 09.05.2025, which remained unchallenged, and the High Court’s subsequent order dated 28.05.2025 failed to even refer to it. The Court therefore held that the appropriate course of action for the respondents was to challenge the government’s order directly rather than invoking contempt jurisdiction.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from Mahendra Prasad Agarwal v. Arvind Kumar Singh & Ors. (2026 INSC 175)]
101. In the present case, the Court found fault with the High Court because it:
A. Declined jurisdiction
B. Ignored the constitutional provisions
C. Failed to consider an existing government order
D. Overruled Supreme Court precedent
Answer: C
102. According to the passage, when a legal right is clearly established:
A. Relief may be granted at the Court’s discretion
B. Relief must necessarily follow
C. Relief should be postponed for policy considerations
D. Relief should be granted only after executive approval
Answer: B
103. The Court warns that “balancing of equities” should not be used to:
A. Interpret statutes
B. Grant interim relief
C. Promote fairness
D. Delay or deny justified relief
Answer: D
104. Under the Constitution of India, the High Courts derive their contempt powers from:
A. Article 215
B. Article 214
C. Article 226
D. Article 227
Answer: A
105. The Rule of Law was propounded by Dicey in which book?
A. The Law of the Constitution
B. Law and Morals
C. Spirit of Laws
D. Principles of Legislation
Answer: A
XXII. While concluding the case, the Court clarified that its interpretation of Article 25 of the Constitution does not confer any special status on followers of Islam. Rather, Article 25 equally guarantees all persons the right to profess, practice, and propagate their religion, subject only to public order, morality, and health. The Court emphasised that this protection does not extend to acts or speech that incite hostility between religious communities and disturb public order.
The Court noted that congregational worship is an important feature of Abrahamic faiths such as Judaism, Christianity, and Islam, while religions like Hinduism and Buddhism generally do not prescribe fixed days for community worship, with followers often gathering during festivals and religious celebrations. Article 25 safeguards the right of every religious denomination to assemble for worship; however, it does not protect activities that deviate from the primary purpose of prayer. The Court reiterated that incitement against another faith under the guise of religious worship falls outside the scope of constitutional protection and may attract criminal liability.
[Extracted with edits from Munazir Khan v. State of U.P. and Others, Writ – C No. – 5996 of 2026]
106. Article 25 of the Constitution of India guarantees:
A. Only the right to practice religion
B. Only the right to profess religion
C. The right to profess, practice, and propagate religion
D. The right to establish educational institutions
Answer: C
107. According to the passage, congregational worship is particularly associated with:
A. Only Hinduism
B. Only Buddhism
C. Tribal religions
D. Abrahamic faiths
Answer: D
108. The Court’s interpretation of Article 25 emphasises:
A. Preferential treatment of certain religions
B. State-sponsored religion
C. Equality of all faiths before the Constitution
D. Restriction on religious propagation
Answer: C
109. Which Supreme Court decision is most closely associated with the “Essential Religious Practices” doctrine?
A. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
B. Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowments, Madras v. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Shirur Mutt
C. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
D. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
Answer: B
110. Which constitutional principle is most strongly reflected in the Court’s observations?
A. Secularism
B. Rule of Law
C. Parliamentary Sovereignty
D. Collective Responsibility
Answer: A
XXIII. The International Law Commission holds an annual session in Geneva for a period of ten to twelve weeks. The subjects for consideration are partly chosen by the ILC itself, partly through recommendations by the General Assembly or the Economic and Social Council.
When the International Law Commission has completed a draft article, it is referred to the General Assembly for further action. The Assembly usually convenes a diplomatic conference of plenipotentiaries to incorporate it into multilateral agreements.
[Extracted from DagDok, International Law Commission]
111. The International Law Commission ordinarily holds its annual session at:
A. The Hague
B. New York
C. Geneva
D. Vienna
Answer: C
112. The annual session of the International Law Commission generally lasts for:
A. Four to six weeks
B. Six to eight weeks
C. Eight to ten weeks
D. Ten to twelve weeks
Answer: D
113. After the International Law Commission completes draft articles on a subject, they are ordinarily referred to:
A. The International Court of Justice
B. The Security Council
C. The General Assembly
D. The Economic and Social Council
Answer: C
114. Which of the following sequences correctly represents the process described in the passage?
A. General Assembly → ILC Draft Articles → ICJ Approval → Multilateral Treaty
B. ILC Draft Articles → General Assembly → Diplomatic Conference → Multilateral Agreement
C. ILC Draft Articles → Security Council → General Assembly → Treaty
D. ECOSOC → ICJ → ILC → Diplomatic Conference
Answer: B
115. Which of the following correctly describes the role of the General Assembly after receiving draft articles from the ILC?
A. It may take further action, including convening a diplomatic conference of plenipotentiaries.
B. It automatically converts the draft articles into binding international law.
C. It must refer the draft articles to the International Court of Justice.
D. It submits the draft articles to ECOSOC for final approval.
Answer: A
XXIV. The present application seeks anticipatory bail in connection with FIR No. 586/2025 registered at Police Station Vijay Vihar, Delhi, for an offence punishable under Section 69 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (BNS).
According to the FIR, lodged on 29 October 2025, the prosecutrix came into contact with the applicant in 2023 while working at a restaurant in Rohini. The applicant, a resident of Ashok Vihar, frequently visited the same gym, and the two eventually developed a friendship. It is alleged that the applicant proposed marriage and, on that assurance, established physical relations with the prosecutrix, continuing the relationship on the promise that he would marry her.
The prosecutrix further alleges that she discovered her pregnancy on 20 September 2025 and informed the applicant, who allegedly persuaded her to terminate it with medication. Despite this, the applicant allegedly continued the relationship and last had sexual relations with her on 24 October 2025 on the same promise of marriage. The following day, when the prosecutrix again found herself pregnant and insisted on marriage, the applicant allegedly refused and disclosed that he was already married.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from Rohit v. State (NCT of Delhi) & Anr., bail appln. 1228/2026]
116. The applicant sought anticipatory bail in connection with an FIR registered for an offence under which provision of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
A. Section 63 BNS
B. Section 64 BNS
C. Section 69 BNS
D. Section 74 BNS
Answer: C
117. The principal object of an FIR is to:
A. Convict the accused
B. Record the first information of a cognizable offence and set the criminal law in motion
C. Determine the guilt of the accused
D. Serve as substantive evidence during trial
Answer: B
118. The maximum punishment prescribed under Section 69 BNS is:
A. Seven years’ imprisonment
B. Life imprisonment
C. Three years’ imprisonment only
D. Ten years’ imprisonment and fine
Answer: D
119. Which of the following is expressly included within “deceitful means” under the Explanation to Section 69 BNS?
A. False promise of employment
B. Refusal to marry due to parental opposition
C. Failure to maintain a spouse
D. Concealment of financial status
Answer: A
120. The FIR was registered at:
A. Police Station Rohini
B. Police Station Ashok Vihar
C. Police Station Vijay Vihar
D. Police Station Pitampura
Answer: C