CLAT PG Mock Practice Questions October 2026

Legal Bites presents the CLAT PG Mock Legal Practice Questions – October 2026, carefully designed to sharpen your preparation strategy and elevate your legal aptitude for the upcoming examination. In today’s highly competitive landscape, where question patterns are becoming increasingly dynamic and judgment-centric, consistent practice with well-curated, concept-driven questions is indispensable.

2. Hans Kelsen and his disciples are collectively associated with which school of jurisprudence?

A. Harvard School

B. Vienna School

C. Realist School

D. Philosophical School

Answer: B

3. According to Hans Kelsen, the primary objective of the Pure Theory of Law is to:

A. Establish morality as the foundation of legal validity

B. Examine law exclusively through its social consequences

C. Separate legal science from non-legal considerations

D. Explain law through political and religious principles

Answer: C

4. Which of the following best reflects the central concern of Kelsen’s Pure Theory of Law?

A. What ought the law to be?

B. What is the law?

C. What makes a law morally just?

D. How does religion influence legislation?

Answer: B

5. Which of the following concepts forms the foundation of Hans Kelsen’s hierarchical theory of legal norms?

A. Sovereign Command

B. Social Solidarity

C. General Will

D. Grundnorm

Answer: D

II. Bentham, like Thomas Hobbes, disregarded the natural law idea and associated law with utility and sovereignty. He criticized the National Law school of thought, calling it “nothing but a phrase,” and even went so far as to brand Blackstonian Natural rights a complete “non-sense upon stilts.” According to him, pain and pleasure—two sovereign lords who alone determine what a man should do or not do—have subjugated mankind to them by nature. It results in the phrase hedonic calculus, subsequently known as his utility principle.

Bentham was critical of the theory of natural law, which holds that there are inherent, universal principles of justice and morality that are discoverable through reason and intuition. He argued that natural law was based on vague and subjective notions of what is “natural” or “right” and that it lacked a clear and objective basis for determining what actions were just or moral.

[Extracted from “Theory of Bentham: Utilitarian Principle” by Aditya Negi, published in the International Journal of Novel Research and Development (IJNRD), Volume 8, Issue 5, May 2023, ISSN: 2456-418]

6. According to Jeremy Bentham, which of the following principles should form the foundation of law?

A. Natural rights and universal morality

B. Utility and sovereignty

C. Religious doctrines and divine commands

D. Customs and traditions

Answer: B

7. Jeremy Bentham famously described natural rights as:

A. The foundation of constitutional democracy

B. The supreme principles of natural justice

C. Nonsense upon stilts

D. The fundamental principles of sovereignty

Answer: C

8. According to Bentham, human conduct is fundamentally governed by:

A. Reason and morality

B. Customs and traditions

C. Justice and equality

D. Pain and pleasure

Answer: D

9. Which of the following best explains Bentham’s criticism of natural law?

A. Natural law places excessive importance on legislative sovereignty.

B. Natural law is based on vague and subjective notions without an objective standard for determining justice and morality.

C. Natural law gives excessive importance to punishment.

D. Natural law rejects the existence of universal moral principles.

Answer: B

10. The concept of ‘Hedonic Calculus’ associated with Jeremy Bentham primarily refers to:

A. Determining the validity of law through judicial precedents

B. Determining legal obligations through social customs

C. Establishing the supremacy of natural rights

D. Measuring pleasure and pain to evaluate the consequences of actions

Answer: D

III. In treaty-making, great powers have historically enjoyed quasi-hegemonic privileges. For three centuries following the Treaties of Westphalia, as European nations expanded their influence across the globe, they organized and formalized their relationship with polities on the periphery through treaties. Those treaties—used to acquire territories, secure trade benefits, and protect the property rights of European citizens—were not negotiated by nations treating each other as equals but were more often than not imposed on non-European states under duress, with flawless legal validity.

Within Europe, treaty-making was also deeply shaped by power differentials, despite Westphalia’s egalitarian promise. Nowhere was this more obvious than in the 19th century Concert system. The Congress of Vienna in 1815 heralded an era of great power management in Europe in which the four (then five) great powers of the day made decisions for the rest of Europe with little or no participation by other states.

In the Concert system, the great powers decided the fate of small countries; rearranged the map of Europe; and laid down rules of international law on the status of international rivers, the status of diplomatic representatives, or the suppression of the slave trade. The great five acted as self-appointed law-makers and other states accepted the rules laid down by them. Agreements were signed, but they merely endorsed the pre-determinations of the leading states. The great powers made the law, and smaller powers ratified the treaties.

[Extracted from “Hierarchy and the Sources of International Law: A Critique” by Mario Prost, published in the Houston Journal of International Law, Vol. 39, Issue 2]

11. According to the passage, great powers historically enjoyed which of the following privileges in treaty-making?

A. Absolute judicial immunity

B. Quasi-hegemonic privileges

C. Equal representation with smaller states

D. Exclusive diplomatic immunity

Answer: B

12. The Congress of Vienna in 1815 marked the beginning of an era characterised by:

A. Equal participation of all European states in decision-making

B. The abolition of great-power influence in international affairs

C. Great-power management of European political affairs

D. The establishment of a universal international legislature

Answer: C

13. According to the passage, treaties between European powers and non-European states were primarily used to:

A. Promote democratic governance and political equality

B. Establish international judicial institutions

C. Acquire territories, secure trade benefits and protect property rights

D. Ensure equal participation in international law-making

Answer: C

14. According to the passage, which of the following functions were performed by the great powers under the Concert system?

1. Determining the fate of smaller countries

2. Rearranging the political map of Europe

3. Formulating rules concerning international rivers

4. Regulating the status of diplomatic representatives

Select the correct answer:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

15. According to the passage, treaty-making within Europe was primarily influenced by:

A. Equal participation of all sovereign states

B. Power differentials among European states

C. Decisions of international judicial institutions

D. Complete adherence to the principles of the Peace of Westphalia

Answer: B

IV. The United Nations started functioning with 51 nations as the Original members. By the end of October 2006 the total membership had increased to 192. Switzerland and East Timor joined the United Nations as 190th and 191st Members in September 2002. Switzerland had so far hesitated to become a member, fearing that its traditional neutrality would be compromised by this act.

The U.N. Charter makes provision for the admission of new members. The membership is open to all peaceloving States which accept the obligations contained in the U.N. Charter. Admissions are made by the General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council. The Charter also makes provisions for the suspension and expulsion of members by the General Assembly on the recommendations of the Security Council.

[Extracted from Tirthankar Hudati and Archana Das, “The Establishment of the United Nations: A Study of Its Formation and Its Contribution,” International Journal of Innovative Research in Technology (IJIRT), Volume 12, Issue 3, August 2025, ISSN: 2349-6002]

16. How many countries were original members of the United Nations when it began functioning?

A. 50

B. 51

C. 55

D. 60

Answer: B

17. Which two countries became the 190th and 191st members of the United Nations in September 2002?

A. Switzerland and East Timor

B. Switzerland and Montenegro

C. East Timor and South Sudan

D. Montenegro and Serbia

Answer: A

18. Why did Switzerland initially hesitate to join the United Nations?

A. It opposed the objectives of the United Nations.

B. It feared that membership would compromise its traditional neutrality.

C. It was not recognised as a sovereign state.

D. It was prohibited from joining by the Security Council.

Answer: B

19. Under Article 4(2) of the United Nations Charter, admission of a new member requires:

A. Approval by the Security Council alone

B. A recommendation of the General Assembly followed by approval of the Security Council

C. Unanimous approval of all existing UN members

D. A decision of the General Assembly upon the recommendation of the Security Council

Answer: D

20. How many member states does the United Nations currently have?

A. 191

B. 192

C. 193

D. 195

Answer: C

V. Amidst all the vast legislative landscape which derive their legitimacy from the Constitution of India (being the supreme law of the nation), if any one subject of enactment is to be bestowed with the pride of place in our Constitutional scheme, it is undoubtedly the election laws of the country. Articles 324 to 329 constitute a self-contained code for superintendence, conduct and adjudications of elections, and Article 327 and 328 expressly contemplate laws made by the Parliament and the Legislatures to give effect to that code. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 establishes the legal framework for conducting elections, ensuring that every citizen has a fair and equal opportunity to exercise his right to vote and participate in the political process, and regulates the qualifications and disqualifications of candidates, delimiting constituencies, and overseeing the electoral machinery, while the 2023 Act establishes the legal framework for constituting the very machinery itself, prescribing who shall be entrusted with the conduct of those elections. The 2023 Act and the RoP Act are not ordinary statutes; they are laws traceable directly to Articles 324(2) and 327 and give flesh and blood to the basic skeletal structure of democracy itself. If a hierarchy were attempted within the corpus of statute law, laws enacted under Part XV of the Constitution, to this Court’s mind, would rank immediately below the Constitution, for, they are the laws that play a significant role in reinforcing the rule of law and in upholding the principles of justice, fairness and transparency in electoral processes, and through which the Government constitutes itself anew at every election.

[Extracted from Dr. Jaya Thakur & Ors. vs Union of India & Anr., 2026 INSC 1040]

21. Under which constitutional provision is Parliament empowered to make laws concerning elections to Parliament and State Legislatures?

A. Article 324

B. Article 325

C. Article 327

D. Article 329

Answer: C

22. Article 324(2) of the Constitution primarily deals with:

A. The right to vote in parliamentary elections

B. The appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners

C. The disqualification of candidates convicted of electoral offences

D. The power of State Legislatures to regulate elections

Answer: B

23. Article 326 of the Constitution of India provides that elections to the House of the People and the Legislative Assemblies of States shall be conducted on the basis of:

A. Proportional representation

B. Indirect elections

C. Universal adult suffrage

D. Electoral college system

Answer: C

24. The voting age under Article 326 was reduced from 21 years to 18 years by:

A. Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976

B. Constitution (44th Amendment) Act, 1978

C. Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992

D. Constitution (61st Amendment) Act, 1988

Answer: D

25. Which Part of the Constitution of India contains provisions relating to elections, including the Election Commission of India?

A. Part XIII

B. Part XIV

C. Part XV

D. Part XVI

Answer: C

VI. In this context, we may look to the English approach to guide us. The American approach, developed through the doctrine of respondeat superior, bears a close resemblance to the doctrine of vicarious liability. The position under Indian law, however, is well settled that the ordinary rule in criminal law runs against vicarious liability, i.e., no person is to be held criminally liable for the act of another. This rule admits exception only where a statute specifically creates a legal fiction imposing such liability. No such difficulty attends the approach taken under English law, since it proceeds on the footing that the act and state of mind in question are those of the corporation itself. Further, the decision in Meridian Global (supra) has attained the status of a locus classicus on this aspect and has been followed across a range of common law jurisdictions as the basis for attribution.

[Extracted from Sanofi India Ltd. v. Central Bureau of Investigation, 2026 INSC 957]

26. American doctrine of respondeat superior, as discussed in the passage, most closely resembles which of the following principles?

A. Strict liability

B. Corporate identification

C. Vicarious liability

D. Absolute liability

Answer: C

27. The doctrine of respondeat superior is traditionally expressed through which of the following legal relationships?

A. Employer and employee

B. Buyer and seller

C. Lessor and lessee

D. Creditor and debtor

Answer: A

28. Under the law of torts, the doctrine of vicarious liability primarily refers to:

A. Liability arising exclusively from one’s own negligent conduct.

B. Liability imposed on one person for the tortious acts of another due to a legally recognised relationship.

C. Liability arising only from breach of contract.

D. Liability imposed without the existence of any wrongful act.

Answer: B

29. According to the passage, what is the general rule concerning vicarious liability under Indian criminal law?

A. A person may be held criminally liable for another’s acts whenever a relationship of employment exists.

B. Criminal liability cannot ordinarily be imposed on a person for the acts of another unless specifically provided by statute.

C. Companies are automatically liable for every criminal act committed by their employees.

D. Vicarious criminal liability is recognised whenever the offence involves corporate misconduct.

Answer: B

30. In criminal law, the term mens rea refers to:

A. The mental element required for the commission of an offence.

B. The physical act constituting an offence.

C. The punishment imposed upon conviction.

D. The procedural requirements of a criminal trial.

Answer: A

VII. For the Revenue, it is argued that Chapter XIX-A of the Act, 1961, particularly Section 245C read with Section 245D, provides for the full and true disclosure of the Assessee’s income that had not been disclosed before the AO, and for payment of tax, penalty, and interest as may be decided by the ITSC. For the assessment year, the Assessee, in his Application, has, through the revised computation, disclosed the tax payable on the disclosed income under Section 245C, amounting to Rs. 6,05,880/- (Rupees Six Lakhs Five Thousand Eight Hundred Eighty). The Notice under Section 148 of the Act, 1961 does not sit in appeal or reopen an issue concluded by the ITSC vide Order dated 17.03.2008. The Assessee is not entitled to claim a deduction under Section 80IB(10) of the Act, 1961. This aspect was not considered in the Order dated 17.03.2008. Therefore, the Show Cause Notice dated 30.06.2010 under Section 148 neither reopens an aspect concluded by the Order of the ITSC nor reopens an Order which has attained finality under Section 245D(4) of the Act, 1961.

[Extracted from Assistant Commissioner of Income Tax & Another v. M/s. Omaxe Limited, 2026 INSC 1000, Civil Appeal No. 9190 of 2013]

31. According to the Revenue’s argument, what is the primary requirement under Section 245C of the Income Tax Act, 1961?

A. Disclosure of only those incomes already assessed by the Assessing Officer

B. Full and true disclosure of income not previously disclosed before the Assessing Officer

C. Automatic exemption from payment of tax, penalty and interest

D. Reassessment of all income previously disclosed by the assessee

Answer: B

32. Why does the Revenue contend that the notice issued under Section 148 does not interfere with the finality of the ITSC’s order?

A. Because the notice concerns an issue that was not considered or concluded by the ITSC

B. Because the ITSC has no authority to determine tax liability

C. Because every ITSC order is automatically subject to reassessment

D. Because Section 148 expressly overrides all settlement orders

Answer: A

33. Which of the following is a mandatory condition for issuing a notice under Section 148, subject to the statutory exceptions?

A. Prior approval of the specified authority.

B. Prior approval of the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal.

C. Written consent of the assessee.

D. Permission from the jurisdictional High Court.

Answer: A

34. Under Explanation 2 to Section 148, the Assessing Officer shall be deemed to possess information suggesting escaped income where a search is initiated under:

A. Section 131

B. Section 132

C. Section 133B

D. Section 142

Answer: B

35. The term “Assessing Officer” is defined under which provision of the Income Tax Act, 1961?

A. Section 2(7A)

B. Section 2(9)

C. Section 116

D. Section 120

Answer: A

VIII. It is well settled that while determining the authority by which an employee was appointed for the purposes of Article 311(1) of the Constitution, the court is required to ascertain the authority which in fact made the appointment with reference to the order of appointment and the statutory or regulatory framework governing such appointment. Once that authority is identified, the constitutional protection under Article 311(1) has to be examined with reference to the hierarchical position of the authority which subsequently passes the order of dismissal or removal.

[Extracted from Union of India & Ors. v. Ramdhani Prasad, 2026 INSC 1047]

36. Under Article 311(1), a government employee cannot be dismissed or removed by:

A. The authority that appointed the employee

B. An authority superior to the appointing authority

C. An authority subordinate to the appointing authority

D. The President or Governor

Answer: C

37. The requirement of giving a civil servant a reasonable opportunity of being heard under Article 311(2) primarily reflects which principle of natural justice?

A. Nemo judex in causa sua

B. Audi alteram partem

C. Res judicata

D. Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea

Answer: B

38. In which landmark case did the Supreme Court examine the scope of the exceptions to the requirement of a departmental inquiry under Article 311(2)?

A. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

B. Union of India v. Tulsiram Patel

C. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

D. Minerva Mills v. Union of India

Answer: B

39. Article 311 of the Constitution of India provides constitutional safeguards to:

A. Members of civil services of the Union or States, members of All India Services and persons holding civil posts under the Union or States

B. All employees working in public and private organisations

C. Members of the Armed Forces exclusively

D All persons holding political offices

Answer: A

40. Under Article 311(3) of the Constitution, who has the final authority to decide whether it is reasonably practicable to hold a departmental inquiry?

A. The President of India

B. The Supreme Court

C. The authority empowered to dismiss, remove or reduce the employee in rank

D. The Union Public Service Commission

Answer: C

IX. This issue has already been settled by the Hon’ble Apex Court in the case of Priya Balan Ghosh (supra), holding that merely on the basis of placing any certificate of Arya Samaj Mandir, it cannot be said that marriage was solemnized as per Hindu Marriage Act. In view of the settled proposition, the observation made in the impugned order that marriage of the petitioner was already solemnized with the complainant-Sucheta Tiwari, has no substance. The other ground of unsuitability of the petitioner taken by the respondent-authorities was that he solemnized 1st marriage on 16.08.2007 with Sucheta Tiwari and thereafter, solemnized another marriage on 13.12.2015 with one Sadhana Tiwari. However, in view of the law laid down by the Hon’ble Apex Court in the case of Priya Balan Ghosh (supra), the marriage dated 16.08.2007, cannot be held to be a marriage in the eyes of law, and, therefore, it cannot be a ground for holding the petitioner unsuitable for service.

[Extracted from Rohit Pandey v. Union of India Through Secretary, Ministry of Home Affairs & Ors., Writ-A No. 4741 of 2022]

41. Under which provision of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, are the ceremonies required for solemnisation of a Hindu marriage recognised?

A. Section 5

B. Section 7

C. Section 8

D. Section 11

Answer: B

42. Which of the following provisions of the Hindu Marriage Act deals with punishment for bigamy?

A. Section 13

B. Section 15

C. Section 17

D. Section 18

Answer: C

43. Under Section 5(i) of the Hindu Marriage Act, a valid Hindu marriage requires that:

A. Both parties must be unmarried throughout their lives.

B. Neither party should have a spouse living at the time of marriage.

C. Both parties must obtain permission from their parents.

D. The marriage must be registered before solemnisation.

Answer: B

44. In which Supreme Court judgment was it emphasised that a Hindu marriage cannot acquire legal validity merely through registration or certification without the requisite ceremonies?

A. Dolly Rani v. Manish Kumar Chanchal

B. Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India

C. Shayara Bano v. Union of India

D. Seema v. Ashwani Kumar

Answer: A

45. According to the legal principle stated in the passage, an Arya Samaj Mandir marriage certificate:

A. Conclusively proves a valid Hindu marriage.

B. Automatically establishes compliance with the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.

C. Does not, by itself, establish that a marriage was validly solemnised under the Hindu Marriage Act.

D. Is equivalent to a decree declaring the marriage valid.

Answer: C

X. We are equally distressed by the news reports regarding the alleged gang rape and murder of a teenage girl in the Swaroop Nagar area of Delhi, where the police reportedly recovered the victim’s decomposed body from a field, in a partially scavenged state.

Furthermore, we take serious note of the recently reported incident involving the alleged sexual assault of a minor girl inside a moving sleeper bus, which law enforcement agencies failed to intercept while it traversed a distance of over 47 Km from Greater Noida to Delhi. One cannot help but draw painful parallels to the 2012 Nirbhaya case, calling into question whether systemic law enforcement mechanisms have made any meaningful progress in the decade since then.

[Extracted from In Re: Recent Rape Incidents in Delhi NCR, 2026 INSC 1063]

46. The 2012 Nirbhaya case led to significant reforms in India’s criminal law through which legislation?

A. Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2008

B. Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013

C. Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2018

D. Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012

Answer: B

47. Which landmark Supreme Court judgment recognised sexual harassment at the workplace as a violation of fundamental rights and laid down preventive guidelines?

A. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (1997)

B. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978)

C. Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017)

D. Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India (2018)

Answer: A

48. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which provision deals with the offence of gang rape?

A. Section 63

B. Section 64

C. Section 70

D. Section 74

Answer: C

49. Which committee was constituted by the Government of India following the 2012 Nirbhaya incident to recommend amendments to criminal laws relating to sexual offences?

A. Justice J.S. Verma Committee

B. Justice Malimath Committee

C. Justice B.N. Srikrishna Committee

D. Justice J.C. Shah Committee

Answer: A

50. The Nirbhaya Fund was announced by the Government of India in which Union Budget?

A. Union Budget 2011–12

B. Union Budget 2012–13

C. Union Budget 2013–14

D. Union Budget 2015–16

Answer: C

XI. The contention that the Respondents already possess a chamber and, therefore, have no genuine need for the premises in question, effectively seeks a judicial reassessment of the suitability of the accommodation available to them. Such an exercise would amount to replacing the landlord’s assessment of their own requirements with that of the Court. It is a settled principle of law that the landlord is the best judge of their requirements, and a tenant cannot dictate how the landlord should use the available premises. The Court’s role is limited to determining whether the requirement is bona fide and whether any reasonably suitable alternative accommodation is available. The Court cannot impose an alternative arrangement merely because the tenant considers it sufficient to meet the landlord’s needs.

[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from Naresh Kumar v. Sunny Kashyap & Anr., RC.REV. 330/2026]

51. Which of the following is NOT a mode of determination of a lease under Section 111 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

A. Efflux of time

B. Express surrender

C. Forfeiture

D. Mere desire of the landlord to recover possession

Answer: D

52. Under Section 107 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, which of the following leases must be made through a registered instrument?

A. A lease for six months

B. A lease from month to month

C. A lease for a term exceeding one year

D. A lease for eleven months

Answer: C

53. Under Section 108(a) of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the lessor is bound to disclose which of the following to the lessee?

A. Every minor defect in the property

B. Any material defect known to the lessor, unknown to the lessee, and not discoverable by ordinary care

C. Only defects relating to ownership

D. Only defects expressly mentioned in the lease agreement

Answer: B

54. Under Section 105 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, a lease involves the transfer of:

A. Ownership of immovable property

B. A right to enjoy immovable property

C. Absolute title to immovable property

D. A right to permanently dispose of immovable property

Answer: B

55. Under Section 108(q) of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, upon determination of the lease, the lessee is bound to:

A. Purchase the leased property

B. Put the lessor into possession of the property

C. Continue paying rent indefinitely

D. Transfer the lease to another tenant

Answer: B

XII. Our Constitution makes it imperative for the State to secure to all its citizens the rights guaranteed to them. Article 15 of the Constitution of India prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. This prohibition, however, does not prevent the State from making any special provision for women and children. Similarly, Article 39 directs the State to frame a policy to protect the children of tender age. It further provides that the children should be given opportunities and facilities to develop in a healthy manner and under conditions of freedom and dignity. The mandate to protect children goes further and provides under Article 45 that the State shall endeavor to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they attain the age of six years.

[Extracted from Mahavir @ Avnish v. State of Madhya Pradesh, 2026 INSC 942]

56. Which provision of the Constitution of India empowers the State to make special provisions for women and children?

A. Article 14

B. Article 15(3)

C. Article 16(2)

D. Article 21A

Answer: B

57. Article 15(1) of the Constitution prohibits discrimination on which of the following grounds?

A. Religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth

B. Religion, language, residence and descent

C. Caste, economic status, education and gender

D. Religion, race, property and domicile

Answer: A

58. Articles 39 and 45 are contained in which Part of the Constitution of India?

A. Part IV – Directive Principles of State Policy

B. Part III – Fundamental Rights

C. Part IVA – Fundamental Duties

D. Part IX – Panchayats

Answer: A

59. Which Constitutional Amendment substituted Article 45 with its present provision concerning early childhood care and education?

A. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976

B. 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978

C. 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002

D. 93rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2005

Answer: C

60. Which constitutional provision guarantees free and compulsory education to children between six and fourteen years of age?

A. Article 21A

B. Article 24

C. Article 39(e)

D. Article 45

Answer: A

XIII. At the outset, it is necessary to note that the scope of interference under Articles 226 and 227 of the Constitution of India with an Award passed by the Labour Court is limited. This Court does not sit as a Court of appeal over findings of fact rendered by the Labour Court. Interference is warranted only where the findings are perverse, based on no evidence, suffer from patent illegality, or disclose a jurisdictional error. Reference in this regard may be made to the judgment in International Airport Authority of India v. International Air Cargo Workers Union : (2009) 13 SCC 374 where the Hon’ble Apex Court held as under:

“47. It is true that in exercising the writ jurisdiction, the High Court cannot sit in appeal over the findings and award of the Industrial Tribunal and therefore, cannot reappreciate evidence. The findings of fact recorded by a fact-finding authority should ordinarily be considered as final. The findings of the Tribunal should not be interfered with in writ jurisdiction merely on the ground that the material on which the Tribunal had acted was insufficient or not credible.

48. It is also true that as long as the findings of fact are based on some materials which are relevant, findings may not be interfered with merely because another view is also possible. But where the Tribunal records findings on no evidence or irrelevant evidence, it is certainly open to the High Court to interfere with the award of the Industrial Tribunal.”

[Extracted from Banwari Singh Rana v. Management of M/s Ashok Hotel & Anr., W.P.(C) 5535/2006]

61. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that the High Court cannot sit in appeal over the findings and award of an Industrial Tribunal while exercising writ jurisdiction?

A. Workmen of Firestone Tyre & Rubber Co. v. Management

B. International Airport Authority of India v. International Air Cargo Workers Union

C. Bangalore Water Supply & Sewerage Board v. A. Rajappa

D. State of Rajasthan v. Sohan Lal

Answer: B

62. Which constitutional provision empowers the High Courts to issue writs, including writs in the nature of certiorari?

A. Article 32

B. Article 136

C. Article 226

D. Article 229

Answer: C

63. The Supreme Court’s ruling in International Airport Authority of India v. International Air Cargo Workers Union is reported in:

A. (2009) 13 SCC 374

B. (2008) 13 SCC 374

C. (2010) 5 SCC 374

D. (2009) 3 SCC 174

Answer: A

64. Under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, which authority was empowered to refer industrial disputes to Labour Courts for adjudication?

A. Appropriate Government

B. National Human Rights Commission

C. District Magistrate

D. Central Vigilance Commission

Answer: A

65. Under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, which section dealt with the publication of awards of Labour Courts and Tribunals?

A. Section 15

B. Section 17

C. Section 18

D. Section 19

Answer: B

XIV. The victim’s father, Sukhabhai Nanjibhai Makwana, examined himself in support of the claim and relied upon his affidavit. During cross-examination, he stated that his son was unmarried and was travelling alone on the train on 27 September 2017, when the untoward incident occurred. He further deposed on oath that his son had purchased a railway ticket, which was subsequently lost. He also admitted, in response to a suggestion put forward by the Railways, that his son was standing near the door of the compartment while travelling.

[Extracted from Sukhabhai Nanjibhai Makwana & Another v. Union of India, Civil Appeal No. 12951 of 2026]

66. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the examination of a witness by the adverse party is known as:

A. Examination-in-chief

B. Re-examination

C. Cross-examination

D. Judicial examination

Answer: C

67. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, leading questions may ordinarily be asked:

A. Only during examination-in-chief

B. During cross-examination

C. Only during re-examination

D. Only with the consent of the witness

Answer: B

68. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, any question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive is called:

A. Cross-question

B. Re-examination question

C. Suggestive evidence

D. Leading question

Answer: D

69. Under Section 143 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, what is the prescribed order of examination of witnesses?

A. Cross-examination, examination-in-chief, re-examination

B. Examination-in-chief, re-examination, cross-examination

C. Examination-in-chief, cross-examination, re-examination

D. Re-examination, examination-in-chief, cross-examination

Answer: C

70. If new matter is introduced during re-examination with the permission of the Court, the adverse party:

A. Cannot question the witness further.

B. May further cross-examine the witness upon that matter.

C. Must file a separate application before the Supreme Court.

D. May demand that the entire testimony be discarded.

Answer: B

XV. However, the High Court does not appear to have engaged with the contrary view taken in The Hako Fortress (Supra) or Mv ‘Trident Dawn’ (Supra). Nor did the High Court consider the specific language of Clause 32 of the BBC, which directly addresses the character in which a charterer holds a vessel after termination but before the owner’s physical repossession. It may be apposite to note that in Chem Orchid (Supra) and Navi-Bunkering Corp (Supra), the foreign Courts were not dealing with a BIMCO BARECON bareboat contract containing Clause 32, which unequivocally states that upon the termination of the contract, the owner shall have the right to repossess the vessel and, pending physical repossession, the charterers shall hold the vessel as a gratuitous bailee to the owner and not demise charterer. The High Court failed to consider this vital distinguishing fact and incorrectly relied on the aforesaid authorities to return an erroneous finding that the Respondent continued to be the demise charterer of the Vessel at the time of the arrest.

[Extracted from Owners and Parties Interested in M.V. Nereus Progress v. Om Freight Forwarders Ltd., 2026 INSC 1055]

71. Why was the reliance on Chem Orchid and Navi-Bunkering Corp considered erroneous in the passage?

A. Both decisions were delivered by courts lacking maritime jurisdiction

B. Both decisions concerned the ownership of cargo rather than vessels

C. Neither decision involved a BIMCO BARECON contract containing Clause 32

D. Both decisions had been expressly overruled

Answer: C

72. Which of the following provisions of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 defines bailment?

A. Section 124

B. Section 148

C. Section 172

D. Section 182

Answer: B

73. Under Section 162 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, which of the following circumstances results in the termination of a gratuitous bailment?

A. Death of the bailor only

B. Death of the bailee only

C. Death of either the bailor or the bailee

D. Death of both the bailor and the bailee

Answer: C

74. A gratuitously lends a horse to B, knowing that the horse is vicious, but fails to disclose this fact. The horse runs away, throwing B and causing injuries. Under Section 150 of Indian Contract Act, who is liable?

A. A, because he failed to disclose a known fault

B. B, because he voluntarily accepted the horse

C. Both A and B are necessarily equally liable

D. Neither A nor B

Answer: A

75. Under which provision of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is the standard of care required of a bailee prescribed?

A. Section 149

B. Section 150

C. Section 151

D. Section 152

Answer: C

XVI. The brief facts of the case are that the petitioner’s husband was an Assistant Professor at Medicine Hospital, Ring Road, Lucknow. The Assistant Professor had availed a personal loan (Xpress Credit Loan) from the State Bank of India for Rs.15 lacs on 03.11.2020. Admittedly, the petitioner was neither a signatory nor a consenting party thereto as a coapplicant or a co-borrower or a guarantor or a surety or an indemnifier or a nominee. In nutshell, there exists no privity of contract between the petitioner and the respondent- State Bank of India. Further, it is available from the records that the said personal loan was secured through an insurance cover arranged from SBI General Insurance, for which a premium of INR 8,803/- was also allegedly paid by the husband of the petitioner.

[Extracted from Ms. Neha Mishra v. Reserve Bank of India Through Governor, Central Office Building, Mumbai & Ors., Writ-C No. 6722 of 2026]

76. Under which provision of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is a contract of indemnity defined?

A. Section 124

B. Section 125

C. Section 126

D. Section 128

Answer: A

77. Under Section 126 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the person who gives a guarantee is called:

A. Principal debtor

B. Creditor

C. Surety

D. Indemnity-holder

Answer: C

78. Under which provision of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is an implied promise by the principal debtor to indemnify the surety recognised?

A. Section 140

B. Section 141

C. Section 145

D. Section 146

Answer: C

79. Under Section 129 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, a guarantee which extends to a series of transactions is called:

A. Specific guarantee

B. Continuing guarantee

C. Conditional indemnity

D. Quasi-contractual guarantee

Answer: B

80. Under Section 130 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, a continuing guarantee may be revoked by the surety:

A. Only with the consent of the principal debtor

B. By notice to the creditor as to future transactions

C. Automatically in respect of all past and future transactions

D. Only through an order of the court

Answer: B

XVII. Gulf Goans (supra) was concerned with a set of guidelines pertaining to permissible construction activity in the coastal areas of Goa, more specifically the distance that has to be maintained from the high tide line. It is to be noted that these guidelines were issued before the enactment of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 (“EP Act”) which penalized environmental violations through statutory power.

In this background, it was held that such executive guidelines cannot be enforced to the prejudice of an individual unless shown to have acquired the force of law. To acquire such character, the guidelines were required to satisfy certain minimum elements i.e., they must inter alia have (i) a certain form possessed by other laws in force; (ii) encapsulate a clear mandate or explicit command which may be prescriptive, permissive or penal; (iii) disclose the achievement of a specific and identifiable purpose; (iv) have some authentication and (v) be notified or published either in the mode prescribed by the statute or in the Official Gazette.

It was added that the first element itself i.e., the form, or the absence thereof will not be determinative. However, the second and third elements i.e., a clear mandate and purpose, were indispensable.

[Extracted from M/s Punahchakran Private Limited v. Indotech Waste Solution & Ors., 2026 INSC 956]

81. In the Gulf Goans case, the guidelines primarily concerned which of the following?

A. Regulation of industrial pollution in Goa

B. Permissible construction activity and distance from the high tide line

C. Protection of forest land from encroachment

D. Regulation of mining activities in coastal areas

Answer: B

82. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, is relevant to the passage because:

A. It introduced statutory powers for penalising environmental violations.

B. It expressly repealed all coastal construction guidelines.

C. It prohibited every form of construction within coastal areas.

D. It transferred environmental regulation exclusively to the judiciary.

Answer: A

83. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 was enacted by Parliament primarily under which constitutional provision?

A. Article 249

B. Article 252

C. Article 253

D. Article 254

Answer: C

84. Which section of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 prohibits the discharge or emission of environmental pollutants in excess of prescribed standards?

A. Section 6

B. Section 9

C. Section 8

D. Section 7

Answer: D

85. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 came into force on:

A. 5 June 1986

B. 19 November 1986

C. 2 October 1986

D. 26 January 1987

Answer: B

XVIII. In the facts of the present case, we find that the distinction sought to be maintained by the State between the punitive and preventive jurisdictions has, in substance, become blurred. The reliance placed upon the very same occurrence and substantially the same material for sustaining both the criminal and preventive detention proceedings lends considerable force to the contention that the detention order has assumed a character more punitive than preventive. We are, therefore, constrained to observe that the State must remain faithful to the rationale underlying preventive detention jurisprudence.

[Extracted from Mulla Afroz v. Union of India & Ors., Criminal Appeal arising out of SLP (Crl.) No. 12534 of 2026]

86. Which Article of the Constitution of India specifically provides safeguards relating to preventive detention?

A. Article 19

B. Article 20

C. Article 21

D. Article 22

Answer: D

87. Article 22 of the Constitution of India deals with:

A. Protection against conviction for offences

B. Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases

C. Protection of life and personal liberty

D. Right to constitutional remedies

Answer: B

88. Under Article 22(2), an arrested person must ordinarily be produced before the nearest Magistrate within:

A. 12 hours

B. 24 hours

C. 48 hours

D. 72 hours

Answer: B

89. Under Article 22(7), which institution has the power to prescribe the maximum period of preventive detention?

A. State Legislature

B. Election Commission of India

C. Supreme Court

D. Parliament

Answer: D

90. Preventive detention is considered an anathema to which of the following constitutional principles?

A. Doctrine of Separation of Powers

B. Principle of Res Judicata

C. Doctrine of Eclipse

D. Rule of Law

Answer: D

XIX. The High-Powered Committee has, in furtherance of its mandate, also undertaken on-the-ground visits and inspections of OCIs, including the OCI at Devanahalli, Bengaluru; the Karnal Open Air Jail in Haryana; and the Cherlapally Prisoners Agricultural Colony in Telangana, with a view to assessing the prevailing conditions, nature of work, availability of vocational training and educational facilities, wages, healthcare and other rehabilitative measures. The report records, inter alia, the need for greater utilisation of OCI facilities; widening of eligibility criteria; strengthening of skill development and educational facilities; rationalisation of wages; and identification of measures for facilitating the inclusion of women prisoners and prisoners with disabilities. Detailed questionnaires have also been prepared and circulated to the concerned stakeholders to obtain granular information on the administration and governance of OCIs, and the High-Powered Committee proposes to consider these issues and make preliminary recommendations at its meeting scheduled for 8th September, 2026.

[Extracted from Suhas Chakma v. Union of India & Ors., Writ Petition (Civil) No. 1082 of 2020]

91. Which of the following Open Correctional Institutions was NOT mentioned in the passage as having been inspected by the High-Powered Committee?

A. Karnal Open Air Jail, Haryana

B. Cherlapally Prisoners Agricultural Colony, Telangana

C. OCI at Devanahalli, Bengaluru

D. Tihar Jail, New Delhi

Answer: D

92. The High-Powered Committee specifically identified the need to facilitate the inclusion of which categories of prisoners in OCIs?

A. Only prisoners convicted of economic offences

B. Women prisoners and prisoners with disabilities

C. Only prisoners serving life imprisonment

D. Only undertrial prisoners

Answer: B

93. Which constitutional provision is most directly associated with the protection of prisoners’ right to life and human dignity?

A. Article 14

B. Article 19(1)(a)

C. Article 21

D. Article 32

Answer: C

94. On which date was the High-Powered Committee scheduled to consider the issues and make preliminary recommendations?

A. 8th August, 2026

B. 8th September, 2026

C. 18th September, 2026

D. 8th October, 2026

Answer: B

95. The term inter alia, used in the passage, means:

A. Among other things

B. In accordance with law

C. Without prejudice

D. In the public interest

Answer: A

XX. At this juncture, we may also add a comment on the use of Artificial Intelligence in adjudicatory processes. While this issue incidentally falls upon us to be considered, use of AI in the process of adjudication is not foreign. Quite the contrary, this Court has recently released draft Regulations for Use of Artificial Intelligence in Courts, 2026, calling for comments and suggestions. Notwithstanding that the regulations are yet to be finalised, use of AI as an assistive tool to speed up the decision making process cannot be denied. However, a note of caution must be sounded: assistance can never be substituted for adjudication. AI may well serve as training wheels but entrusting it with the pilot’s seat would be both imprudent and dangerous.

[Vijay Ghanshyam Gadiya v. Union of India & Anr., Civil Appeal arising out of SLP (Civil) No. 15605 of 2026]

96. According to the passage, what is the appropriate role of Artificial Intelligence in judicial adjudication?

A. To independently determine judicial outcomes

B. To replace judges in routine cases

C. To assist judges in expediting the decision-making process

D. To exercise judicial discretion in complex matters

Answer: C

97. According to the passage, the draft Regulations for Use of Artificial Intelligence in Courts, 2026, were released for:

A. Immediate implementation across all courts

B. Comments and suggestions

C. Replacing traditional judicial procedures

D. Establishing AI courts without human judges

Answer: B

98. Which Article of the Constitution of India provides for the separation of the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State?

A. Article 48

B. Article 49

C. Article 50

D. Article 51

Answer: C

99. The statement “AI may well serve as training wheels but entrusting it with the pilot’s seat would be both imprudent and dangerous” primarily emphasises which of the following?

A. Artificial Intelligence should completely replace human judges.

B. Artificial Intelligence may assist judicial decision-making but should not replace human adjudication.

C. Artificial Intelligence should be prohibited from all judicial processes.

D. Artificial Intelligence should independently determine judicial outcomes.

Answer: B

100. Which of the following situations would most clearly violate the principle that assistance cannot substitute adjudication?

A. Using AI to organise case records.

B. Using AI to identify potentially relevant precedents.

C. Allowing AI to independently determine the outcome of a dispute without meaningful judicial scrutiny.

D. Using AI to prepare a preliminary summary of legal arguments.

Answer: C

XXI. On this aspect, the material relied upon by the respondents assumes significance. Their case is not confined to the fact that the petitioner married Sirajuddin. The material discloses a course of circumstances extending over several decades. The petitioner, originally known as Nanhki, married Sirajuddin and thereafter came to be known as Naimunnisha. She lived with him for a prolonged period; children were born from the relationship and bear Muslim names; the family register records her religion as Muslim; and other documents and inquiry material have been relied upon to show the identity under which she subsequently lived. These circumstances cannot be treated as conclusive individually, but neither can they be ignored when the Court is required to determine the factual question of continuing tribal identity.

[Extracted from Nanhki @ Naimunnisha v. State of U.P. and 3 Others, Writ-C No. 17043 of 2026]

101. Which constitutional provision empowers the State to make special provisions for the advancement of Scheduled Tribes?

A. Article 14

B. Article 15(4)

C. Article 19(1)(g)

D. Article 21

Answer: B

102. Which constitutional provision establishes the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes?

A. Article 338

B. Article 342

C. Article 340

D. Article 338A

Answer: D

103. Which of the following is essential for a valid Muslim marriage?

A. Compulsory registration before a Magistrate

B. Approval of a religious court

C. Performance of Saptapadi

D. Offer (Ijab) and acceptance (Qubul)

Answer: D

104. The term ‘Iddat’ under Muslim law refers to:

A. A compulsory marriage ceremony

B. A prescribed waiting period observed by a woman following divorce or the death of her husband

C. A form of inheritance

D. A mode of adoption

Answer: B

105. Which of the following is NOT a recognised form of dissolution of marriage under classical Muslim law?

A. Talaq

B. Khula

C. Mubarat

D. Saptapadi

Answer: D

XXII. One of the well-recognised grounds for quashing criminal proceedings is that, even if the allegations contained in the complaint or the First Information Report are taken at their face value and accepted in their entirety, they do not disclose the commission of any offence or make out a case against the accused. At the same time, while exercising jurisdiction under Section 528 of the BNSS, this Court is not expected to undertake a meticulous examination of the evidence, assess the probative value of the material collected during the investigation, or conduct a mini-trial. The scope of enquiry in a petition seeking quashing of criminal proceedings is limited to examining whether the allegations, on a plain reading and in the light of the material available on record, disclose the essential ingredients of the offence alleged. If the allegations raise disputed questions of fact requiring appreciation of evidence, such matters are ordinarily to be adjudicated by the trial court upon a fullfledged trial.

[Extracted from Nirmala Devi v. State of U.P. and Another, Application U/S 528 BNSS No. 11303 of 2026.]

106. Section 528 of the BNSS, 2023 corresponds to which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

A. Section 154

B. Section 173

C. Section 482

D. Section 397

Answer: C

107. Section 528 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 deals with:

A. Revisional powers of the High Court

B. Saving of inherent powers of the High Court

C. Appellate jurisdiction of the High Court

D. Transfer of criminal cases

Answer: B

108. In State of Haryana vs Bhajan Lal (1992), the Supreme Court laid down guidelines concerning:

A. Grant of anticipatory bail

B. Quashing of FIRs and criminal proceedings

C. Suspension of criminal sentences

D. Transfer of criminal trials

Answer: B

109. Which of the following is NOT an objective underlying Section 528 BNSS?

A. Preventing abuse of the process of any Court.

B. Securing the ends of justice.

C. Protecting individuals against malicious criminal proceedings in appropriate cases.

D. Allowing the High Court to disregard express statutory prohibitions.

Answer: D

110. What is the retirement age of a Judge of a High Court in India?

A. 60 years

B. 62 years

C. 65 years

D. 70 years

Answer: B

XXIII. Once the testimony of the alleged eye-witnesses is discarded, the prosecution case necessarily becomes one based solely on circumstantial evidence. However, having discarded the ocular version, the High Court proceeded to examine whether the prosecution had succeeded in establishing the guilt of the accused on the basis of the circumstantial evidence on record and, on that basis, upheld the conviction. The correctness of such an approach must, therefore, be examined in light of the settled principles governing cases resting entirely on circumstantial evidence.

Though the law regarding circumstantial evidence has been crystallised by this Court in various judgments but it will not be out of place to refer to an oftenly quoted judgment of this Court in Sharad Birdhichand Sarda v. State of Maharashtra, wherein this Court has observed a “panchsutra” for dealing with the cases of circumstantial evidence.

[Extracted from Kartika @ Kirtan @ Kirtan Charan Jena & Anr. Etc. v. State of Odisha, 2026 INSC 1015.]

111. In which landmark judgment did the Supreme Court formulate the five golden principles, commonly known as the “Panchsheel” or “Panchsutra”, governing circumstantial evidence?

A. Hanumant Govind Nargundkar v. State of Madhya Pradesh

B. Sharad Birdhichand Sarda v. State of Maharashtra

C. Kali Ram v. State of Himachal Pradesh

D. State of Rajasthan v. Kashi Ram

Answer: B

112. If the prosecution establishes several incriminating circumstances but fails to complete the chain of evidence, the court should ordinarily:

A. Convict the accused on the basis of strong suspicion

B. Shift the burden of proof to the accused

C. Extend the benefit of reasonable doubt to the accused

D. Presume that the missing links have been established

Answer: C

113. The testimony of an eye-witness in a criminal trial is generally classified as:

A. Circumstantial evidence

B. Direct evidence

C. Hearsay evidence

D. Secondary evidence

Answer: B

114. Which of the following is the primary test for determining the competency of a witness?

A. Educational qualification

B. Age and social status

C. Ability to understand questions and give rational answers

D. Previous experience of giving evidence

Answer: C

115. Section 125 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 deals with:

A. Competency of witnesses

B. Witnesses unable to communicate verbally

C. Examination of hostile witnesses

D. Number of witnesses required to prove a fact

Answer: B

XXIV. The said discussion clearly brings out the fact that the victim was subject to penetrative sexual assault by the appellant/accused, and criminal intimidation under Section 506 of the IPC, established inter alia by way of Medico-Legal Certificate dated 27.11.2019. Resultantly, the appellant can be convicted under Section 376 of the IPC for commission of rape of the victim under Section 375 of the IPC. The conviction under Section 506 of the IPC awarded by Trial Court and upheld by the High Court is confirmed.

[Extracted from Pynchemalangaki Bareh v. State of Meghalaya, arising out of SLP (Criminal) No. 9809 of 2025]

116. Under Section 506 IPC/ Section 351 BNS, criminal intimidation is punishable with:

A. Imprisonment only

B. Fine only

C. Imprisonment of either description extending to two years, or fine, or both

D. Mandatory imprisonment and fine

Answer: C

117. Under Section 351(1) BNS, criminal intimidation may involve a threat to cause injury to:

A. The person of another

B. The reputation of another

C. The property of another

D. All of the above

Answer: D

118. Under Section 351(1) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, criminal intimidation may be committed by threatening another person:

A. Only through verbal communication

B. Only through written communication

C. By any means

D. Only through physical gestures

Answer: C

119. Criminal intimidation by threatening to cause death or grievous hurt is punishable with imprisonment extending to:

A. Two years

B. Three years

C. Five years

D. Seven years

Answer: D

120. Which of the following acts falls within the scope of Section 351(4) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

A. Criminal intimidation through anonymous communication

B. Criminal intimidation by concealing the name of the person issuing the threat

C. Criminal intimidation by concealing the abode of the person issuing the threat

D. All of the above

Answer: D

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