Legal Bites presents the CLAT UG Mock Legal Practice Questions – July 2026, thoughtfully curated to refine your preparation strategy and strengthen your legal aptitude for the upcoming examination. In preparing this mock test, we have tried to closely follow the CLAT UG 2026 pattern while ensuring coverage of all subjects relevant to the CLAT UG syllabus. The paper is designed to test reading comprehension, critical reasoning, and the ability to apply concepts across passages drawn from law, current affairs, history, economics, and social issues—mirroring the demands of the actual CLAT UG exam. Candidates are advised to attempt the mock in a time-bound manner, evaluate their answers carefully, and use the results to identify strengths, address gaps, and improve overall exam strategy.
CLAT UG Mock Legal Practice Questions
July 2026
No. of questions: 120
SECTION I
I. The history of post-independence India is marked by competing approaches to social transformation. Constitutional democracy, state-led development, land reform, community development, socialist movements, and Gandhian constructive programmes all sought, in different ways, to address the profound inequalities inherited from colonial rule. Within this complex landscape, Acharya Vinoba Bhave emerged as an unusual social thinker and activist whose approach placed ethical transformation at the centre of political and economic change. Born Vinayak Narahari Bhave on 11 September 1895 in Gagode, Maharashtra, Vinoba Bhave joined Mahatma Gandhi’s ashram at Sabarmati in 1916 after abandoning his formal schooling. His association with Gandhi profoundly shaped his understanding of political action, spirituality, non-violence, and social responsibility. Gandhi subsequently identified Bhave as the first individual satyagrahi in the Civil Disobedience movement, recognizing in him an unusually strong commitment to non-violence and moral discipline. Bhave’s significance, however, cannot be reduced to his relationship with Gandhi or to his leadership of the Bhoodan movement. His public work addressed a much wider range of questions, including land inequality, communal harmony, village reconstruction, economic organization, education, religious interpretation, ecological concerns, and non-violent conflict resolution. His intellectual framework was rooted in Sarvodaya, a conception of social welfare that sought the uplift of all rather than the maximization of benefits for a numerical majority.
[Extracted from Virender Kumar & Bhart Singh, “Vinoba Bhave and the Ethics of Social Transformation: Sarvodaya, Bhoodan, and the Limits of Moral Reform,” Indian Journal of Modern Research and Reviews, Vol. 4, Issue 8, August 2026.]
1. According to the passage, what distinguished Vinoba Bhave’s approach to social transformation?
A. Reliance primarily on state-led economic planning
B. Placement of ethical transformation at the centre of political and economic change
C. Rejection of constitutional democracy in favour of revolutionary socialism
D. Preference for economic development over social reform
Answer: B
2. Which of the following can be most reasonably inferred about the meaning of Sarvodaya as presented in the passage?
A. Welfare should be determined by what benefits the greatest numerical majority.
B. Social welfare should primarily protect economically productive groups.
C. Social transformation should seek the uplift of all rather than merely the majority.
D. Individual welfare must always be subordinated to state interests.
Answer: C
3. Which of the following statements is NOT supported by the passage?
A. Vinoba Bhave was born in Maharashtra.
B. Bhave joined Gandhi’s Sabarmati ashram in 1916.
C. Bhave’s public work was confined mainly to the Bhoodan movement.
D. Bhave was concerned with issues such as communal harmony and village reconstruction.
Answer: C
4. Vinoba Bhave’s association with Mahatma Gandhi profoundly influenced his understanding of:
A. Political action, spirituality, non-violence, and social responsibility
B. Industrialisation, capitalism, and electoral politics
C. Constitutional interpretation and judicial reform
D. Economic planning and international relations
Answer: A
5. Vinoba Bhave joined Mahatma Gandhi’s ashram at Sabarmati in:
A. 1915
B. 1916
C. 1917
D. 1920
Answer: B
II. Manusmriti or the Law of Manu traces its origin back to the 200 CE (Common Era). It is believed in Hinduism, this piece of law originated from the creator of every existence, Brahma and he passed it on to the first human being on the planet Manu. This is why it is known as ‘the Law of Manu’ or ‘Manav Dharma Shastra’. Several historians opine that it was written by Manu himself in Sanksrit as a reflection of his thoughts forming a well-organized discourse on important elements of life which includes laws, rights, duties, the conduct of life and other aspects of living. During the creation of Manusmriti, the people of that civilization were living ignorant of the very basic understanding of laws so much so that they were even unaware of the irreplaceable impact of the law on a civilization’s population and its binding nature. In such a situation, the creation of Manu as the first law book in that period helped it garner a lot of praise for its so-called progressive nature. Concomitantly, it faced huge criticism for some of its societal ideas which were more conservative in nature.
[Extracted from Edgar K., “The Law of Manusmriti: An Antifeminist and Anti-Human Manuscript,” International Journal of Legal Science and Innovation, Vol. 3, Issue 5, 2021]
6. According to the passage, Manusmriti traces its origin back to approximately:
A. 200 BCE
B. 200 CE
C. 500 CE
D. 1000 CE
Answer: B
7. Manusmriti is also referred to in the passage as:
A. Manav Dharma Shastra
B. Arthashastra
C. Dharma Sutra
D. Vedic Dharma Shastra
Answer: A
8. Manusmriti is described in the passage as dealing with which of the following?
1. Laws
2. Rights and duties
3. Conduct of life
4. Other aspects of living
Choose the correct option:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D
9. According to the passage, several historians opine that Manusmriti was written by:
A. Brahma
B. Manu
C. Kautilya
D. Vyasa
Answer: B
10. The passage states that Manusmriti simultaneously faced considerable criticism because:
A. some of its societal ideas were conservative in nature.
B. it did not contain any rules concerning duties.
C. it was not written in Sanskrit.
D. it rejected the binding nature of law.
Answer: A
III. In 599 BCE, the birth and life of Mahavira uplifted the ideas of Jainism. He renounced his wealthy noble life in search of spiritual awakening. After 12 years of rigorous penance and abstinence from materialistic worldly pleasures, he achieved ‘kevala-gyan’, or infinite wisdom and omniscience. Mahavira became the 24th and final “ford-maker” or Tirthankara of the Jain religion, upraising him to the status of demi-god or limited godhood. The Tirthankara is a term used for a spiritual leader in Jainism who acquires passage from the eternal cycle of birth and death. Mahavira died in 527 BCE after he had significantly influenced the religion through his dogma of the five vows of nonviolence, truthfulness, anti-theft, chastity, and non-attachment. Among these, his doctrine of nonviolence was the most widespread and influential.
[Extracted from A Brief Account of History of India, Ms. Pragya Bakhshi and Dr. Manisha Shukla, International Journal of Creative Research Thoughts (IJCRT), ISSN: 2320-2882]
11. Mahavira is regarded as which Tirthankara of Jainism?
A. 21st
B. 22nd
C. 23rd
D. 24th
Answer: D
12. The term ‘kevala-gyan’, as used in the passage, refers to:
A. Complete renunciation of worldly life
B. Infinite wisdom and omniscience
C. Freedom from material possessions
D. Observance of the five vows
Answer: B
13. Which of the following is NOT included among the five vows mentioned in the passage?
A. Nonviolence
B. Truthfulness
C. Chastity
D. Compassion
Answer: D
14. Mahavira died in:
A. 599 BCE
B. 527 BCE
C. 487 BCE
D. 467 BCE
Answer: B
15. According to the passage, a Tirthankara is:
A. A ruler who protects followers of Jainism
B. A spiritual leader who acquires passage from the cycle of birth and death
C. A person who follows only the doctrine of nonviolence
D. A Jain monk who renounces material possessions
Answer: B
IV. The historical roots of Hinduism trace back to the Indus Valley Civilization, around 2000 BCE, where early forms of religious practices, including rituals and symbolic worship, were prevalent. The Vedic period, which followed, introduced foundational scriptures such as the Vedas, which remain central to Hindu philosophy and theology. Over time, Hinduism integrated various cultural and philosophical influences, adapting to different historical and geographical contexts while preserving its core spiritual values.
One of the essential frameworks within Hinduism is the Varna system, which classifies society into four primary groups: Brahmins (priests and scholars), Kshatriyas (warriors and rulers), Vaishyas (merchants and traders), and Shudras (laborers and service providers). This system, initially based on professional roles and responsibilities, gradually evolved into a rigid caste system that has been subject to much debate and criticism. Alongside the Varna system, the Ashrama system outlines the four stages of life—Brahmacharya (student life), Grihastha (householder life), Vanaprastha (retirement), and Sannyasa (renunciation). These stages provide a structured approach to personal and spiritual development, guiding individuals through their life’s journey.
[Extracted from Gayatri Sunkad, “Threads of Eternity: Exploring Hindu Thought’s Influence on Contemporary Morality, Spiritual Identity, and Cultural Dialogue,” Journal of Language, Literature, Social, and Cultural Studies, Vol. 3, No. 2 (July 2025), e-ISSN: 2986-4461]
16. Consider the following statements regarding the Ashrama system:
1. Brahmacharya refers to student life.
2. Grihastha refers to householder life.
3. Vanaprastha refers to retirement.
4. Sannyasa refers to renunciation.
Which of the above statements are correct according to the passage?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D
17. According to the passage, the historical roots of Hinduism can be traced back to:
A. The Vedic period around 1000 BCE
B. The Indus Valley Civilization around 2000 BCE
C. The Mauryan Empire around 300 BCE
D. The Gupta period around 400 CE
Answer: B
18. Which of the following statements about the Vedic period is supported by the passage?
A. It replaced all earlier forms of religious worship.
B. It introduced the rigid caste system.
C. It introduced foundational scriptures such as the Vedas.
D. It marked the beginning of the Ashrama system exclusively for Brahmins.
Answer: C
19. The reference to “rituals and symbolic worship” in the passage is associated with:
A. The Vedic period
B. The Indus Valley Civilization
C. The emergence of the Varna system
D. The Sannyasa stage
Answer: B
20. Which of the following pairs is INCORRECTLY matched according to the passage?
A. Brahmins — Priests and scholars
B. Kshatriyas — Warriors and rulers
C. Vaishyas — Merchants and traders
D. Shudras — Warriors and administrators
Answer: D
V. Human have come a long way from the unicellular form, through intermediary stages, to the developing civilization and finally to what we are now. It is not the memory but the knowledge which brought profound changes in human life. The breakthroughs where knowledge became science, came with a number of systems (language, institutions, agriculture, writing, printing, schools, communication, computers, internet…) human developed. It is obvious that the power of knowledge has multiplied very rapidly in the past few years, but so have our environmental problems. The question now is, whether our knowledge tool will be able to outrun our problems and will be able to keep doing so forever. It may well be that a new class of problems will manifest, outside the scope of knowledge, and that a new way of thinking will be needed. Albert Einstein has once said that the problems that exist in the world today cannot be solved by the level of thinking that created them. If science, technology and human nature have caused our global problems, what hope do we have of solving them using the same? Science, scientists and technology, are our hope for the future, but do we know their strengths and weaknesses? Scientists are often not aware of their limitations and those imposed by the systems they have created themselves, or the confines placed upon them by society. Scientists by nature of their specialization have isolated themselves from the public and society at large. Communication is necessary to allow the public to play their part and to make science benefit society. Technology is behaving like a runaway monster, totally out of control. The question remains: can we control it and do we want to? Perhaps we won’t be able to solve our problems because our world view is incorrect. The new world view requires us to alter our laws, placing sustainability at the top and all else below it. Perhaps we will need to turn all our thinking upside down. No small task indeed, but this will make future look brighter and the human to rule nature.
[Extracted from Dr. Chander Mohan, “Relationship of Man and Nature, Environmental Degradation: A Threat to Nature and Man,” TIJER, Vol. 8, Issue 6, June 2021, ISSN 2349-9249]
21. The reference to Albert Einstein is primarily used to support the proposition that:
A. scientific knowledge is incapable of solving any global problem.
B. technological advancement should be immediately restricted.
C. problems may require a fundamentally different level or mode of thinking from that which created them.
D. scientists are solely responsible for environmental problems.
Answer: C
22. Profound changes in human life have primarily been brought about by:
A. Memory
B. Natural evolution
C. Knowledge
D. Political institutions
Answer: C
23. The expression “Technology is behaving like a runaway monster” most nearly suggests that technology:
A. has become physically dangerous to scientists.
B. is developing in ways that may be difficult for humans to control.
C. should be completely eliminated from society.
D. has stopped developing because of environmental concerns.
Answer: B
24. Which of the following is mentioned in the passage as contributing to the transformation of knowledge into science?
A. Language
B. Agriculture
C. Writing
D. All of the above
Answer: D
SECTION II
VI. Citizens will soon be able to access and share medical records, book OPD appointments, locate nearby hospitals, call ambulances and access Ayushman Bharat services through a single mobile application as the Centre launches Aarogya Setu 2.0 on Monday.
Union health minister J P Nadda will also launch a series of digital health initiatives aimed at connecting patients, hospitals, laboratories and insurers through a common digital health network.
Originally launched during the Covid-19 pandemic as a contact-tracing app, Aarogya Setu has now been transformed into a personal health record application. The revamped app will allow users to create and manage their Ayushman Bharat Health Account (ABHA), access and share digital health records, register for OPD visits using Scan & Register, make hospital payments through Scan & Pay, receive medicine reminders and manage the health records of family members.
The app will also help users find nearby hospitals, doctors, ambulance services, blood banks with real-time blood availability and Jan Aushadhi Kendras.
[Extracted from the newspaper, The Times of India, June 28, 2026.]
25. What was the primary purpose of Aarogya Setu when it was originally launched?
A. To facilitate online hospital payments
B. To trace contacts during the Covid-19 pandemic
C. To maintain digital health insurance records
D. To provide ambulance services nationwide
Answer: B
26. Which of the following best describes the transformation of Aarogya Setu 2.0?
A. From a digital payment application to a health insurance platform
B. From a hospital management application to a vaccination portal
C. From a contact-tracing application to a personal health record application
D. From a government information portal to a private healthcare application
Answer: C
27. What is the primary objective of the digital health initiatives mentioned in the passage?
A. To replace all physical hospitals with virtual healthcare centres
B. To connect patients, hospitals, laboratories and insurers through a common digital health network
C. To make private health insurance compulsory for citizens
D. To restrict access to healthcare services through a single government hospital
Answer: B
28. What is the purpose of the Scan & Register facility?
A. To register for OPD visits
B. To transfer medical insurance policies
C. To make payments for medicines
D. To locate nearby blood banks
Answer: A
29. What can be reasonably inferred about the role of technology in healthcare delivery from the passage?
A. Technology can facilitate coordination among different healthcare stakeholders.
B. Technology will completely replace traditional healthcare institutions.
C. Digital platforms necessarily reduce the quality of medical treatment.
D. Healthcare technology is useful only during public health emergencies.
Answer: A
VII. The men’s lightweight double scull duo of Lakshay and Ujjwal Kumar Singh created history as they bagged India’s first ever gold at World Rowing Cup in Lucerne, Switzerland, on Saturday.
The pair clocked 6 minutes 26.09 seconds to clinch the coveted medal ahead of strong competition from Hong Kong’s San Tung Lam and Tik Lun Chan (6:27.14) and the Netherlands’ Erik Van Eijck Van Heslinga and Fredrik Ploeg (6:27.36) in the third and final World Cup of the season at the picturesque Rotsee Lake.
India had previously won three bronze at World Cups, one in women’s quadruple in 2009 and two in para pairs in 2019 and 2022.
[Extracted from the newspaper, The Times of India, June 27, 2026.]
30. Which Indian rowing duo created history by winning India’s first-ever gold medal at the World Rowing Cup?
A. Arjun Lal Jat and Arvind Singh
B. Lakshay and Ujjwal Kumar Singh
C. Satnam Singh and Sukhmeet Singh
D. Vikram Singh and Rohit Kumar
Answer: B
31. In which country was the World Rowing Cup held where India secured its historic gold medal?
A. Germany
B. Netherlands
C. Switzerland
D. France
Answer: C
32. In which rowing category did the Indian duo win the historic gold medal?
A. Men’s quadruple sculls
B. Men’s single sculls
C. Men’s lightweight double sculls
D. Men’s coxless four
Answer: C
33. What was the winning time recorded by the Indian rowing duo?
A. 6 minutes 27.14 seconds
B. 6 minutes 26.09 seconds
C. 6 minutes 27.36 seconds
D. 6 minutes 25.19 seconds
Answer: B
34. How many bronze medals had India previously won at World Rowing Cups before securing its first gold medal in 2026?
A. Three
B. Two
C. Four
D. Five
Answer: A
VIII. India and Japan have adopted the Rules of Implementation for the Joint Crediting Mechanism (JCM) under Article 6.2 of the Paris Agreement, for enhancing cooperation on climate action, greenhouse gas emission reduction and sustainable development initiatives. According to the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, the Rules of Implementation were adopted on 8th June this year following the Memorandum of Cooperation signed between the two countries last year for the Joint Crediting Mechanism.
The mechanism provides a framework for collaboration on mitigation projects that reduce or remove greenhouse gas emissions while supporting sustainable development in India. It will also contribute to the achievement of the Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) of both India and Japan under the Paris Agreement.
The Rules of Implementation lay down governance arrangements for the mechanism, including the establishment of a Joint Committee comprising representatives of both governments, transparent project approval procedures, third-party validation and verification processes, sustainable development safeguards and national registries for tracking the issuance and transfer of carbon credits.
[Extracted from News On AIR, “India, Japan Adopt Rules Of Implementation For Joint Crediting Mechanism Under Paris Agreement,” June 16, 2026]
35. India and Japan have adopted the Rules of Implementation for the Joint Crediting Mechanism (JCM) under which Article of the Paris Agreement?
A. Article 4.1
B. Article 5.2
C. Article 6.2
D. Article 7.3
Answer: C
36. What is the primary objective of the Joint Crediting Mechanism (JCM) between India and Japan?
A. To promote international trade in renewable energy equipment
B. To enhance cooperation on climate action, greenhouse gas emission reduction and sustainable development
C. To establish a common environmental regulatory authority
D. To regulate industrial production in both countries
Answer: B
37. According to the passage, the Rules of Implementation for the Joint Crediting Mechanism were adopted on which date?
A. 5th June
B. 8th June
C. 12th June
D. 15th June
Answer: B
38. Which ministry announced the adoption of the Rules of Implementation for the Joint Crediting Mechanism?
A. Ministry of External Affairs
B. Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
C. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
D. Ministry of Science and Technology
Answer: C
39. The Joint Crediting Mechanism (JCM) was established following which agreement between India and Japan?
A. Bilateral Free Trade Agreement
B. Memorandum of Cooperation
C. Kyoto Protocol Implementation Agreement
D. Indo-Pacific Environmental Partnership
Answer: B
40. What does NDC stand for in the context of the Paris Agreement?
A. Nationally Determined Contributions
B. National Development Council
C. National Decarbonisation Commission
D. National Development Commitments
Answer: A
IX. The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi has approved Phase 2(A) of Ahmedabad Metro Rail Project with corridor for a length of 6.032 Km with 05 stations (04 Elevated and 01 underground). On operationalisation of Phase 2(A), Ahmedabad-Gandhinagar will have 77.63 Km of active Metro Rail Network. The names of stations in the Phase 2(A) Corridor are- Ashram Road, Koteshwar Prachin Mandir, Sabarmati River, Sardar Nagar and Airport.
The total completion cost including IDC (Interest during Construction) for the project will be Rs.2,169.04 crore.
The Phase 2(A) of Ahmedabad Metro Rail Project represents a significant advancement in the city’s infrastructure development. Phase 2(A) acts as a major expansion of the Metro Rail Network in the city.
Phase 2(A) of the Ahmedabad Metro Project envisages the development of approximately 6.032 km of new metro corridor, aimed at substantially enhancing public transportation by providing seamless connectivity to the airport and linking key residential and commercial areas that presently lack efficient transit access.
This phase aims to seamlessly integrate key zones, including residential & Commercial hubs with existing Ahmedabad-Gandhinagar corridor. Further, likelihood of sports facilities also being developed in the vicinity for the World Police Games 2029 and Commonwealth Games 2030.
By bridging these vital areas with the metro network, Phase 2(A) will not only enhance connectivity but also stimulate economic activity, tourism, and ease urban mobility for both residents and visitors.
[Excerpts from the press release issued by the Press Information Bureau (PIB), Government of India, dated June 10, 2026.]
41. What is the estimated total completion cost of Phase 2(A) of the Ahmedabad Metro Rail Project, including Interest during Construction (IDC)?
A. ₹1,969.04 crore
B. ₹2,169.04 crore
C. ₹2,369.04 crore
D. ₹2,569.04 crore
Answer: B
42. Which of the following stations is NOT mentioned as part of the Ahmedabad Metro Rail Project Phase 2(A) corridor?
A. Ashram Road
B. Koteshwar Prachin Mandir
C. Sardar Nagar
D. Vastrapur
Answer: D
43. Which of the following is a major objective of Phase 2(A) of the Ahmedabad Metro Rail Project?
A. Connecting Ahmedabad directly with Mumbai
B. Providing seamless metro connectivity to the airport
C. Replacing the existing Ahmedabad-Gandhinagar Metro corridor
D. Establishing a high-speed railway network
Answer: B
44. Which of the following sporting events is scheduled for 2029, as mentioned in the passage?
A. Commonwealth Games
B. Asian Games
C. World Police Games
D. Olympic Games
Answer: C
45. In which year are the Commonwealth Games mentioned in the passage expected to take place?
A. 2028
B. 2029
C. 2030
D. 2032
Answer: C
46. Which of the following rivers is mentioned in the names of stations proposed under Phase 2(A)?
A. Narmada
B. Tapi
C. Mahi
D. Sabarmati
Answer: D
X. In a significant move to enhance service quality and ensure patient-centric healthcare delivery, the Employees’ State Insurance Corporation (ESIC), under the Ministry of Labour & Employment, has successfully rolled out a comprehensive Centralized Online Patient Feedback System across all its Hospitals and Dispensaries nationwide.
This digital initiative empowers Insured Persons (IPs) and beneficiaries to seamlessly share their healthcare experiences, raise specific concerns, and provide actionable suggestions for institutional improvement. The platform is designed to capture direct citizen feedback on critical service parameters, notably the cleanliness of the facility, the behaviour of the medical staff, and the availability of requisite medicines.
To ensure wider participation and absolute ease of access, the system offers multiple feedback channels for the beneficiaries:
– Automated SMS Links: A direct feedback link is sent via SMS to the Insured Person immediately after they avail services through the ESIC HIS (Dhanwantri) Module.
– On-Site QR Codes: Beneficiaries can quickly share their feedback by scanning QR codes displayed on customized, multilingual posters prominently placed at all OPDs and hospital locations.
– Web Portal: Feedback can also be submitted directly through the official ESIC website.
The user-friendly interface requires patients to simply scan the QR code using their mobile devices, enter their IP Number, rate their experience, and submit their feedback in a matter of seconds.
[Excerpts from the Press Release issued by the Press Information Bureau (PIB), Government of India, Ministry of Labour & Employment, on June 01, 2026]
47. Which organisation has launched the Centralized Online Patient Feedback System across its hospitals and dispensaries?
A. Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO)
B. Employees’ State Insurance Corporation (ESIC)
C. National Health Authority (NHA)
D. Central Government Health Scheme (CGHS)
Answer: B
48. The Employees’ State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) functions under which Union Ministry?
A.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
B. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
C. Ministry of Labour and Employment
D. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
Answer: C
49. What is the primary objective of the Centralized Online Patient Feedback System?
A. To provide free health insurance to all citizens
B. To improve healthcare service quality through direct patient feedback
C. To replace physical hospitals with online consultations
D. To introduce compulsory digital health cards
Answer: B
50. Which of the following parameters are specifically mentioned as areas for patient feedback?
1. Cleanliness of healthcare facilities
2. Behaviour of medical staff
3. Availability of requisite medicines
4. Salaries of hospital employees
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: C
51. Which module is used to send automated SMS feedback links to Insured Persons after they avail healthcare services?
A. Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission Module
B. Dhanwantri Module
C. e-Sanjeevani Module
D. National Health Portal Module
Answer: B
52. Which of the following methods can beneficiaries use to submit feedback under the ESIC initiative?
1. Automated SMS links
2. QR codes displayed at healthcare facilities
3. Official ESIC website
Select the correct answer:
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
53. What information must patients enter after scanning the QR code to submit their feedback?
A. Aadhaar Number
B. PAN Number
C. IP Number
D. Voter ID Number
Answer: C
Section III
XI. Centre has notified amendments to the Immigration and Foreigners Rules, mandating that foreigners arriving in India for up to 180 days must register themselves before the expiry of their visa if they seek to extend their stay in the country. Previously, registration had to be completed within 14 days after the end of the 180-day period. The Ministry of Home Affairs has notified the Immigration and Foreigners (Amendment) Rules, 2026, introducing key changes to registration timelines and the appeals mechanism under the Immigration and Foreigners Rules, 2025. However, late registration beyond this period will now be permitted only under emergent circumstances.
For the first time, an online appeal system has been added in the rules. A person affected by any order can now file an online appeal with the Commissioner of the Bureau of Immigration. The appeal must be filed within 30 days of receiving the order. The Commissioner will have to give a decision after hearing the concerned party, and the matter should be resolved within 60 days.
[Excerpt from the news article titled “Government notifies Immigration and Foreigners (Amendment) Rules, 2026 with key changes to registration timelines”, published by News On AIR, on June 2, 2026]
54. Which authority has been designated to hear online appeals under the Immigration and Foreigners (Amendment) Rules, 2026?
A. Foreigners Regional Registration Officer
B. Commissioner of the Bureau of Immigration
C. Secretary, Ministry of External Affairs
D. Chief Immigration Officer of the concerned State
Answer: B
55. What is the prescribed period for filing an online appeal against an order under the amended rules?
A. 30 days from the date of receiving the order
B. 14 days from the date of the order
C. 60 days from the date of receiving the order
D. 90 days from the date of the order
Answer: A
56. The Commissioner of the Bureau of Immigration is expected to resolve an appeal within:
A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 45 days
D. 60 days
Answer: D
57. Under the amended rules, late registration beyond the prescribed period is permissible only when:
A. The foreign national has previously visited India.
B. The foreign national pays an additional registration fee.
C. Emergent circumstances justify the delay.
D. The foreign national submits an application within 60 days.
Answer: C
58. The Immigration and Foreigners (Amendment) Rules, 2026, introduce changes to which of the following existing rules?
A. Citizenship Rules, 2009
B. Passport Rules, 1980
C. Immigration and Foreigners Rules, 2025
D. Foreigners Registration Rules, 1992
Answer: C
XII. The Basic Structure Doctrine keeps the supremacy of the Constitution. Though this doctrine finds no place in the script of Indian Constitution it is major pillar of our constitution. The term basic structure was first coined by the attorney M.K. Nambiar while arguing for the petitioners in I.C Golaknath v. State of punjab. But it was enshrined only in the judgement of Kesavananda bharati v. State of Kerala. By this doctrine parliament can amend any part of the constitution but without affecting the basic structure of the constitution. The judicial innovation of the Basic Structure doctrine can be traced as two phases.ie, Pre Keshavananda bharati case and post Keshavananda bharati case.
[Extracted from the article “The Constitutional Core Amendment Era – Historical Overview” by Asheena Augusta, IJLRA]
59. According to the passage, who first coined the term ‘Basic Structure’ while arguing before the Supreme Court?
A. Nani Palkhivala
B. H.M. Seervai
C. M.K. Nambiar
D. M.C. Setalvad
Answer: C
60. Which of the following is the guardian and final interpreter of the Indian Constitution?
A. Parliament
B. President of India
C. Supreme Court of India
D. Election Commission of India
Answer: C
61. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
A. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B. B.N. Rau
C. K.M. Munshi
D. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Answer: D
62. In which year was the landmark judgment in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala delivered?
A. 1950
B. 1967
C. 1980
D. 1973
Answer: D
63. What is the supreme law of India?
A. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita
B. Constitution of India
C. Employees’ Compensation Act
D. Indian Contract Act
Answer: B
64. What is the name of the Lower House of the Indian Parliament?
A. Lok Sabha
B. Rajya Sabha
C. Vidhan Parishad
D. Supreme Court
Answer: A
XIII. The significance of the POCSO Act lies not merely in the creation of substantive offences relating to child sexual abuse, but equally in its recognition that the justice delivery process itself must remain child-sensitive, trauma-informed, child friendly and protective of the psychological well-being of the child victim. The enactment represents a conscious legislative departure from the conventional adversarial criminal procedures insofar as children are concerned. The statute proceeds on the foundational premise that a child who has allegedly suffered sexual abuse must not be exposed to processes capable of causing further emotional harm, humiliation or secondary victimisation.
[Extracted from Sheetal Vasant Thakur v. Chirag Arora (2026 INSC 638)]
65. What is the primary objective of the POCSO Act, as reflected in the passage?
A. To punish offenders without conducting trials
B. To protect children from sexual offences while ensuring child-friendly judicial procedures
C. To replace all criminal laws relating to children
D. To provide financial compensation to every child
Answer: B
66. What does the term ‘secondary victimisation’ in the passage primarily refer to?
A. A child becoming a victim of another criminal offence
B. Additional psychological or emotional harm caused to a victim during the justice delivery process
C. Punishment imposed on the family of the victim
D. Repeated commission of the same offence by an accused
Answer: B
67. According to the passage, the POCSO Act represents a departure from:
A. Conventional adversarial criminal procedures
B. Constitutional principles of equality
C. International human rights conventions
D. Principles of natural justice
Answer: A
68. Which of the following statements regarding the POCSO Act is correct?
A. It protects only female children
B. It applies only to children below 12 years
C. It is a gender-neutral legislation
D. It deals exclusively with offences committed in schools
Answer: C
69. Which of the following practices is most consistent with the principles discussed in the passage?
A. Conducting proceedings in a manner that protects the child’s dignity and emotional well-being
B. Requiring a child victim to repeatedly narrate traumatic incidents without necessity
C. Publicly disclosing the identity of the child victim
D. Allowing the accused to personally cross-examine the child
Answer: A
70. According to the passage, the significance of the POCSO Act extends beyond:
A. Providing compensation to victims
B. Creating substantive offences relating to child sexual abuse
C. Establishing separate courts for children
D. Regulating the conduct of police officers
Answer: B
XIV. Calling housewives “nation builders”, Supreme Court for the first time said in case of a homemaker’s death in an accident, the Motor Accident Claims Tribunal will calculate the compensation to be paid to her family by assuming her monthly income to be at least Rs 30,000.
Pained by the 25-year delay, 22 of which were because the matter remained pending in Punjab and Haryana HC, in grant of compensation to the family of a homemaker who died in an accident on Nov 25, 2001, SC said the economy and stability of a house was wholly dependent on the woman and enhanced compensation from Rs 8.4 lakh to Rs 63 lakh, with interest of 7.5% from 2001.
A Supreme Court bench of Justices Sanjay Karol and N K Singh said women were largely responsible for the preparation of human capital on which the dreams of being the world’s largest economy, among other things, rested.
[Extracted from the newspaper, The Times of India, June 12, 2026]
71. According to the passage, what minimum monthly income should be assumed for a homemaker while calculating compensation?
A. Rs 15,000
B. Rs 20,000
C. Rs 30,000
D. Rs 40,000
Answer: C
72. What was the enhanced compensation awarded by the Supreme Court in the case mentioned in the passage?
A. Rs 8.4 lakh
B. Rs 30 lakh
C. Rs 45 lakh
D. Rs 63 lakh
Answer: D
73. According to the passage, how many years did the matter remain pending before the Punjab and Haryana High Court?
A. 15 years
B. 20 years
C. 22 years
D. 25 years
Answer: C
74. What rate of interest was awarded by the Supreme Court on the enhanced compensation?
A. 5%
B. 6%
C. 9%
D. 7.5%
Answer: D
75. Which of the following best explains why the Supreme Court described homemakers as “nation builders”?
A. They contribute to the development of human capital and household stability.
B. They are primarily responsible for maintaining public infrastructure.
C. They directly contribute to government revenue through taxation.
D. They are responsible for formulating national economic policies.
Answer: A
76. Which judges constituted the Supreme Court bench mentioned in the passage?
A. Justice B.R. Gavai and Justice Surya Kant
B. Justice Sanjay Karol and Justice N.K. Singh
C. Justice Vikram Nath and Justice J.B. Pardiwala
D. Justice P.S. Narasimha and Justice K.V. Viswanathan
Answer: B
XV. The Supreme Court has held that married daughters cannot be excluded from consideration for compassionate appointment merely on the basis of their marital status. The Court observed that excluding married daughters from the definition of ‘family’ is manifestly arbitrary, unjustified and constitutionally untenable.
A Bench comprising Justice P.S. Narasimha and Justice Alok Aradhe made the observations while setting aside an Allahabad High Court order that had upheld the exclusion of married daughters from the definition of family for compassionate appointment.
The matter arose from an appeal filed by a married daughter of a deceased fair price shop dealer whose application for allotment of a fair price shop on compassionate grounds had been rejected. She challenged a 2019 government order that excluded married daughters from the category of eligible family members.
The Supreme Court held that such exclusion could not be sustained, emphasising that the purpose of allotment under the dependent quota is to provide immediate financial relief to families facing hardship following the death of a fair price shop dealer.
The Court’s ruling reinforces the principle that marital status alone cannot justify denying a daughter consideration for compassionate benefits.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from the article titled “Married Daughter Cannot Be Excluded From Compassionate Appointment: SC”, published by News On AIR on June 2, 2026.]
77. A married daughter applies for compassionate allotment following the death of her father, a fair price shop dealer. Her application is rejected solely because she is married. Based on the Supreme Court’s reasoning, which conclusion is most appropriate?
A. The rejection is justified because marriage automatically ends dependency.
B. The rejection is valid if the daughter resides separately from her parents.
C. The rejection cannot be sustained solely on the ground of marital status.
D. The daughter must first obtain a divorce to become eligible.
Answer: C
78. The Supreme Court’s decision primarily questioned which aspect of the 2019 government order?
A. The authority of the government to regulate fair price shops
B. The procedure for distributing food grains through fair price shops
C. The financial assistance provided to retired government employees
D. The exclusion of married daughters from the definition of family
Answer: D
79. Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The Supreme Court found the exclusion of married daughters from the definition of family constitutionally untenable.
Reason (R): The purpose of compassionate allotment under the dependent quota is to provide immediate financial assistance to the family of a deceased dealer facing hardship.
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true, but R is false.
D. A is false, but R is true.
Answer: A
80. According to the Supreme Court, the exclusion of married daughters from the definition of ‘family’ for compassionate allotment is:
A. Constitutionally valid if authorised by a government order
B. Manifestly arbitrary, unjustified and constitutionally untenable
C. Permissible when the daughter is financially independent
D. Valid unless expressly prohibited by legislation
Answer: B
81. Consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court held that marital status alone cannot justify excluding a daughter from consideration for compassionate benefits.
2. The case concerned compassionate allotment of a fair price shop dealership.
3. The Supreme Court declared that all married daughters are entitled to government employment irrespective of eligibility requirements.
4. The Allahabad High Court’s order was set aside by the Supreme Court.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: C
82. Which of the following factors was central to the Supreme Court’s reasoning?
A. The appellant’s educational qualifications
B. The number of fair price shops available in the district
C. The length of service completed by the deceased dealer
D. The objective of providing immediate financial relief to the deceased dealer’s family
Answer: D
SECTION IV
XVI. During a classroom activity, students were given a word puzzle involving the word “EDUCATION.” The teacher explained that solving such puzzles helps improve concentration, observation and logical reasoning. The students were instructed to perform a series of changes to the given word. First, they had to reverse the order of the first four letters while keeping the remaining letters unchanged. Next, they were asked to identify the last letter of the original word and place it at the beginning of the newly formed arrangement. Finally, they had to add the letter ‘S’ at the end. The teacher reminded the students that each instruction must be followed carefully and in the correct order. After completing all the changes, the students were asked to observe the positions of different letters and identify vowels, consonants and their relationships. Those who followed the instructions correctly would be able to answer all the questions easily.
83. Which letter will be at the beginning of the new arrangement?
A. E
B. N
C. C
D. S
Answer: B
84. Which letter will be at the end of the new arrangement?
A. N
B. O
C. S
D. E
Answer: C
85. How many vowels are present in the new arrangement?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: C
86. Which letter will be fifth from the left?
A. E
B. A
C. T
D. I
Answer: A
87. If the first four letters of the word “EDUCATION” are reversed while the remaining letters are kept unchanged, what will be the new arrangement?
A. CUDEATION
B. DUCEATION
C. UDECATION
D. CDEUATION
Answer: A
88. Which of the following meaningful words can be formed using the letters of the word “EDUCATION”?
A. ACTION
B. DOCTOR
C. SCHOOL
D. FRIEND
Answer: A
XVII. On Monday morning, the principal of Sunrise Public School discovered that the school’s Golden Trophy was missing from the display cabinet. The trophy had been kept in the principal’s office after the annual sports competition on Friday.
The school was closed on Sunday, but three people had visited the building that day: Rohan, a student; Priya, a teacher; and Amit, the school caretaker.
Rohan said he had visited the school at 10:00 AM to collect his forgotten notebook. The security guard confirmed that Rohan left at 10:20 AM.
Priya stated that she had visited the school library at 12:00 noon and left at 1:00 PM. The librarian confirmed her statement.
Amit, the caretaker, was responsible for cleaning the principal’s office. He entered the office at 2:00 PM and left at 3:00 PM. He was the only person among the three who had a key to the trophy cabinet.
The security guard reported that he had seen the trophy inside the cabinet at 1:30 PM. On Monday morning, the cabinet was found unlocked, and the trophy was missing.
During the investigation, the principal discovered a cleaning cloth near the cabinet. Amit regularly used similar cloths while cleaning the office. However, no one had actually witnessed the theft.
Based on these facts, the principal began questioning the three individuals to determine who was most likely responsible for the missing trophy.
89. Where was the Golden Trophy kept before it disappeared?
A. School library
B. Principal’s office
C. Sports ground
D. Classroom
Answer: B
90. Who visited the school at 10:00 AM on Sunday?
A. Priya
B. Amit
C. Rohan
D. Principal
Answer: C
91. At what time did the security guard last see the trophy?
A. 10:00 AM
B. 12:00 noon
C. 1:30 PM
D. 3:00 PM
Answer: C
92. Who had the key to the trophy cabinet?
A. Rohan
B. Priya
C. Security guard
D. Amit
Answer: D
93. Which object was discovered near the trophy cabinet?
A. A notebook
B. A cleaning cloth
C. A mobile phone
D. A school bag
Answer: B
94. Who is the most likely suspect based on the available evidence?
A. Rohan, because he visited the school first
B. Priya, because she was in the library
C. Amit, because he had access to the cabinet and used similar cleaning cloths
D. The principal, because the trophy was kept in his office
Answer: C
95. Which conclusion can be drawn from the passage?
A. Amit definitely stole the trophy
B. Rohan stole the trophy before leaving
C. Priya secretly entered the principal’s office
D. Amit is a possible suspect, but the theft has not been conclusively proved
Answer: D
XVIII. In a family gathering, a group of cousins decided to play a logical reasoning game using mathematical symbols to represent blood relationships. Instead of describing their family members directly, they introduced a special code in which each symbol indicated a particular relationship between two individuals. According to the rules of the game, A + B means A is the father of B, A – B means A is the mother of B, A × B means A is the brother of B, and A ÷ B means A is the daughter of B.
During the game, Riya wrote the expression P + Q × R on a board and asked everyone to determine how P was related to R. Another participant presented M – N + O and challenged the group to identify the relationship between M and O. As the game continued, the participants realised that solving these expressions required them to interpret each symbol carefully and trace the relationships in the correct order. They also discovered that a person’s relationship with another family member could be determined by combining two or more coded statements. The game encouraged everyone to apply logical reasoning rather than make assumptions about family relationships.
On the basis of the above passage, answer the following questions.
96. If A + B × C, how is A related to C?
A. Uncle
B. Father
C. Grandfather
D. Brother
Answer: B
97. If P – Q + R, how is P related to R?
A. Mother
B. Aunt
C. Grandmother
D. Sister
Answer: C
98. If X × Y – Z, how is X related to Z?
A. Father
B. Maternal Uncle
C. Grandfather
D. Brother
Answer: B
99. If M ÷ N + O, how is M related to O?
A. Mother
B. Aunt
C. Sister
D. Daughter
Answer: C
100. If A – B × C ÷ D, how is A related to D?
A. Mother
B. Grandmother
C. Daughter
D. Aunt
Answer: A
101. If P + Q – R × S, how is P related to S?
A. Father
B. Maternal Grandfather
C. Uncle
D. Brother
Answer: B
XIX. Four teams – Falcon (F), Titan (T), Phoenix (P), and Viper (V) – are participating in a robotics competition consisting of four challenges: Challenge I, Challenge II, Challenge III, and Challenge IV. Each challenge involves exactly two teams competing against each other. Every team must participate in exactly two challenges, and no two teams can compete against each other more than once.
The organisers have established the following rules for scheduling the challenges:
Rule 1 (Consecutive Participation): Phoenix (P) must participate in two consecutive challenges.
Rule 2 (Fixed Appearance): Viper (V) must participate in Challenge III.
Rule 3 (Opponent Restriction): Falcon (F) and Titan (T) must compete against each other in Challenge I.
Rule 4 (Timing Constraint): Titan (T) must complete both its challenges before Challenge IV.
Rule 5 (Final Challenge): Falcon (F) must participate in Challenge IV, but Phoenix (P) cannot participate in the final challenge.
Rule 6 (Participation Link): The team competing against Titan (T) in its second challenge must also participate in Challenge II.
Based on the information provided in the passage, answer the following questions.
103. Which two teams must compete in Challenge I?
A. Falcon and Phoenix
B. Falcon and Titan
C. Titan and Viper
D. Phoenix and Viper
Answer: B
104. Which team must compete against Falcon in Challenge IV?
A. Titan
B. Phoenix
C. Viper
D. Cannot be determined
Answer: C
105. In which two challenges must Phoenix participate?
A. Challenge I and Challenge II
B. Challenge II and Challenge III
C. Challenge III and Challenge IV
D. Challenge I and Challenge IV
Answer: B
106. Which of the following is the correct sequence of matches?
A. F–T, P–V, T–P, F–V
B. F–T, P–V, F–P, T–V
C. F–T, T–P, P–V, F–V
D. F–T, F–V, T–P, P–V
Answer: A
107. Which team participates in both Challenge II and Challenge III?
A. Falcon
B. Titan
C. Phoenix
D. Viper
Answer: C
108. Which of the following statements must be true?
A. Titan competes in Challenge IV.
B. Viper competes in Challenge I.
C. Falcon competes in Challenge III.
D. Phoenix competes in Challenge II.
Answer: D
Section V
XX. Budgetary allocation for the Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare increased from Rs.27,663 crore in 2013-14 to Rs.1,40,528.78 crore for 2026-27. This significant rise reflects the sustained policy support and continued investment in agricultural infrastructure, strengthening overall agricultural expansion.
Total foodgrain production has increased from 265.05 million tonnes in 2013-14 to 357.73 million tonnes in 2024-25. The growth has been driven by higher production of rice, wheat, maize, and coarse cereals. This also included millets, now promoted as Shree Anna. This growth has been supported by the National Food Security and Nutrition Mission (NFSNM). The mission promotes higher production of rice, wheat, pulses, and coarse cereals. It supports improved seeds, better agronomic practices, and technology adoption.
– Rice touched a record production of 150.18 Mt in 2024-25, a 42.38 percent increase compared to 2014-15 (105.48 Mt). India became the world’s largest rice producer.
– Wheat recorded the highest production of 117.94 Mt in 2024-25, rising over 36 percent since 2014-15.
– Maize production also reached 43.40 Mt in 2024-25, an increase of around 79 percent from 2014-15 (24.17 Mt).
109. What was the budgetary allocation for the Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare in 2026-27?
A. Rs. 1,20,528.78 crore
B. Rs. 1,40,528.78 crore
C. Rs. 1,50,528.78 crore
D. Rs. 1,30,528.78 crore
Answer: B
110. By approximately how many million tonnes did India’s total foodgrain production increase between 2013-14 and 2024-25?
A. 82.68 million tonnes
B. 92.68 million tonnes
C.102.68 million tonnes
D. 112.68 million tonnes
Answer: B
111. If rice production increased by 42.38% between 2014-15 and 2024-25, what was the approximate absolute increase in production?
A. 34.70 million tonnes
B. 44.70 million tonnes
C. 54.70 million tonnes
D. 64.70 million tonnes
Answer: B
112. What was the percentage increase in rice production between 2014-15 and 2024-25?
A. 42.38%
B. 36.38%
C. 52.38%
D. 79.38%
Answer: A
113. What was the production of maize in India during 2014-15?
A. 20.17 million tonnes
B. 22.17 million tonnes
C. 24.17 million tonnes
D. 26.17 million tonnes
Answer: C
114. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a measure supported by the National Food Security and Nutrition Mission?
A. Improved seeds
B. Better agronomic practices
C. Technology adoption
D. Expansion of agricultural exports
Answer: D
XXI. Following the June contract price, the cost of supplying a 14.2 kg cylinder, were it priced on an import-linked basis, has risen to over ₹1,600. The under-recovery now absorbed on each domestic cylinder is about ₹700. The scale of this is visible in the fully market-priced commercial cylinder: the 19 kg cylinder used by hotels and restaurants sells in Delhi at ₹3,113.50, about ₹164 a kg, after five increases during the West Asia crisis. The domestic household, by contrast, pays about ₹66 a kg after the revision. Commercial gas carries a higher rate of tax and larger margins, so it sits above the household’s cost-reflective level; even so, the import-linked cost of a domestic cylinder works out to over ₹1,600.
As the conflict tightened the Strait of Hormuz, through which roughly a fifth of the world’s oil and a large share of India’s energy imports pass, most commercial traffic in the waterway was brought to a near halt. About 54 per cent of India’s LPG consumption was routed through the Strait, leaving the cooking-gas supply directly exposed to the disruption. India was among the few that kept its energy cargoes moving. Through sustained coordination, Indian-flagged tankers continued to transit the Strait and discharge at Indian ports, carrying crude oil and successive consignments of LPG. There has been no shortage of any petroleum product, and bottling and distribution have continued normally across the network.
115. What is the approximate under-recovery absorbed on each domestic LPG cylinder, according to the passage?
A. ₹500
B. ₹600
C. ₹700
D. ₹900
Answer: C
116. According to the passage, approximately how much does a domestic household pay per kilogram of LPG after the revision?
A. ₹66
B. ₹100
C. ₹164
D. ₹112
Answer: A
117. Approximately what proportion of the world’s oil passes through the Strait of Hormuz, according to the passage?
A. One-tenth
B. One-fifth
C. One-third
D. One-half
Answer: B
118. What percentage of India’s LPG consumption was routed through the Strait of Hormuz?
A. 44%
B. 48%
C. 54%
D. 64%
Answer: C
119. How did India maintain the movement of energy supplies through the Strait of Hormuz?
A. By replacing all LPG imports with domestic production
B. By transporting LPG exclusively through land routes
C. By coordinating the continued transit of Indian-flagged tankers
D. By suspending commercial LPG distribution
Answer: C
120. Which of the following best explains why commercial LPG is priced above the cost-reflective level of domestic LPG?
A. Commercial LPG is exclusively imported from West Asia.
B. Commercial LPG is supplied only through private distributors.
C. Commercial LPG carries higher taxes and larger margins.
D. Commercial LPG is transported through a different international route.
Answer: C