CLAT PG Mock Legal Practice Questions July 2026

Legal Bites presents the CLAT PG Mock Legal Practice Questions – July 2026, carefully designed to sharpen your preparation strategy and elevate your legal aptitude for the upcoming examination. In today’s highly competitive landscape, where question patterns are becoming increasingly dynamic and judgment-centric, consistent practice with well-curated, concept-driven questions is indispensable.

CLAT PG Mock Legal Practice Questions

July 2026

I. Hans Kelsen (1881-1973), the Austrian jurist was born at Prague in 1881 and was Professor of law at the Vienna University. He was the Judge of the Supreme Constitutional Court of Austria during 1920-1930. Subsequently, he came to England and in 1940 he moved to the United States and became Professor of law in several American Universities. Of late he was emeritus Professor of Political Science of the University of California where he expounded his Pure Theory of law in the 20th century which has evoked worldwide interest. Law according to Kelsen, is a specific technique of social organisation. “The concept of law has no moral connotation whatsoever”; its decisive criterion is ‘the element of force.’ This approach got him the title of Neo-Analytic or Neo-Austinian. Kelsen also asserts the identity of State and law. As a political organisation, the State is a legal order, and every State is governed by law. “A State not governed by law is unthinkable.” Kelsen was a prolific writer and has written several books like Austrian Constitution (1920), General Theory of Law and State (1945), The Pure Theory of Law (1934), revised (1960), Principle of International Law (1952), What Justice (1957), and many other works.

[Extracted from Rajib Hassan, “Hans Kelsen and His Pure Theory of Law: The Great Mystery Revisited,” International Journal of Law Management & Humanities, Vol. 6, Issue 6, ISSN 2581-5369]

1. Which of the following works of Kelsen was originally published in 1934 and subsequently revised in 1960?

A. General Theory of Law and State

B. Principle of International Law

C. The Pure Theory of Law

D. Austrian Constitution

Answer: C

2. Kelsen served as a Judge of the Supreme Constitutional Court of Austria during:

A. 1910–1920

B. 1918–1928

C. 1920–1930

D. 1930–1940

Answer: C

3. Which of the following most accurately reflects Kelsen’s understanding of the relationship between law and morality?

A. Every valid law must conform to morality.

B. Law derives its validity from principles of natural justice.

C. The concept of law has no necessary moral connotation.

D. Immoral laws automatically cease to be legally valid.

Answer: C

4. Hans Kelsen’s jurisprudential approach is commonly described as:

A. Historical jurisprudence

B. Neo-Analytic or Neo-Austinian jurisprudence

C. Sociological jurisprudence

D. Natural law jurisprudence

Answer: B

5. According to Kelsen, law is best understood as:

A. A reflection of morality and justice

B. A command issued exclusively by a sovereign

C. A body of customs accepted by society

D. A specific technique of social organisation

Answer: D

II. It is well known that Jeremy Bentham is regarded as the founder of positivism in modern sense of its term. He defined law as “an assemblage of signs, declarative of a volition, conceived or adopted by the sovereign, concerning the conduct to be observed in a certain case by certain person or class of persons who are supposed to be the subject to the sovereign power”. Bentham’s philosophy was named as the “Utilitarian Individualism”. He argued that the purpose of “law” is to free an individual from bondage and from restraints on his freedom. His principle of utilitarianism, therefore, emphasized that the ultimate end and objective of the legislation should be “the greatest happiness of the greatest number of people”. Utility, thus, was defined as being “the property or tendency of a thing to prevent some evil or produce some good; the consequences of which are either pleasure or pain”.

[Extracted from Mihir S. Asolkar, “Universal Human Rights: A Utilitarian Perspective”, Indian Journal of Law and Legal Research, Volume II, Issue II, ISSN: 2582-8878.]

6. According to the passage, Jeremy Bentham is regarded as the founder of:

A. Historical School of Jurisprudence

B. Positivism in the modern sense

C. Sociological Jurisprudence

D. Natural Law School

Answer: B

7. According to Bentham’s definition quoted in the passage, law essentially represents:

A. Customs accepted by society over a long period

B. Principles of morality recognised by courts

C. Signs declarative of a volition conceived or adopted by the sovereign

D. Rules derived exclusively from natural justice

Answer: C

8. Bentham’s philosophy, as stated in the passage, is known as:

A. Utilitarian Individualism

B. Analytical Positivism

C. Social Utilitarianism

D. Ethical Individualism

Answer: A

9. According to Bentham, the ultimate end and objective of legislation should be:

A. Protection of the absolute authority of the sovereign

B. Preservation of customary law

C. Greatest happiness of the greatest number of people

D. Protection of individual liberty irrespective of social consequences

Answer: C

10. Consider the following statements based on the passage:

1. Bentham viewed law as connected with the volition of the sovereign.

2. Bentham considered the promotion of happiness an important objective of legislation.

3. Bentham’s conception of utility is associated with the consequences of pleasure and pain.

4. Bentham believed that law should increase restraints on individual freedom.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1, 2 and 3 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

III. The drafters of article 13(1)(a) of the Charter of the United Nations, at the San Francisco Conference, in 1945, considered a proposal to make an explicit reference to “revision” of existing international rules, but opted for the words “progressive development” since “juxtaposed as they were with codification, they implied modifications of as well as additions to existing rules” so as to “establish a nice balance between stability and change, whereas ‘revision’ would lay too much emphasis on change.” During the process of drafting the Statute, the Committee of Seventeen recognized that the tasks that were to be entrusted to the Commission would vary in nature: some might involve the drafting of a convention on a subject which had not yet been regulated by international law or in regard to which the law had not yet been highly developed or formulated in the practice of States; while other tasks might involve the more precise formulation and systematization of the law in areas where there had been extensive State practice, precedent and doctrine. The former type of task was labeled, “for convenience of reference,” as “progressive development” and the latter “codification.”

[Extracted from “The Work of the International Law Commission”, Eighth Edition, Volume I, United Nations, New York, 2012]

11. Why did the drafters of Article 13(1)(a) of the UN Charter prefer the expression “progressive development” over “revision”?

A. Because revision was considered inconsistent with customary international law.

B. Because progressive development implied both modifications of and additions to existing rules while maintaining a balance between stability and change.

C. Because revision could only be undertaken by the International Court of Justice.

D. Because progressive development excluded any alteration of existing international law.

Answer: B

12. At which Conference did the drafters of Article 13(1)(a) of the UN Charter consider the proposal concerning the “revision” of existing international rules?

A. Geneva Conference

B. San Francisco Conference

C. Vienna Conference

D. Hague Conference

Answer: B

13. Which expression was preferred by the drafters instead of “revision”?

A. Codification

B. Modification

C. Progressive development

D. Systematization

Answer: C

14. Which body recognised that the tasks to be entrusted to the Commission would vary in nature?

A. General Assembly

B. Security Council

C. Committee of Seventeen

D. International Court of Justice

Answer: C

15. In which year was the San Francisco Conference referred to in the passage held?

A. 1945

B. 1944

C. 1946

D. 1947

Answer: A

IV. Delegates from 50 nations gathered in San Francisco. They represented over 80% of the world’s population. These delegates were determined to set up an organization that would preserve peace and help build a better world. The main objective of the San Francisco conference, officially known as the United Nations Conference on International Organization (UNCIO), was to produce a charter for this new organization that would be acceptable to all the countries.

The conference took place from 25 April to 26 June 1945. The process of writing the UN Charter took two months. Every part of it had to be voted on and accepted by a two-thirds majority.

One issue that provoked long and heated debate was the right of each permanent member of the SC to veto any resolution passed by the SC (The permanent members were China, the USSR, the United States, the United Kingdom, and France.) The smaller powers feared that when one of the “Big Five” menaced the peace, the SC would be powerless to act. They wanted to reduce the power of the SC veto. But the great powers insisted on the veto. They stated the main responsibility for maintaining world peace would fall most heavily on them. Eventually, the smaller powers conceded the point in the interest of setting up the world organization.

On 25 June 1945, the delegates met in the San Francisco Opera House for the last full session of the conference. It was here that delegates unanimously passed the UN Charter. The next day, in the auditorium of the Veterans’ Memorial Hall, the delegates signed the UN Charter. China, the first victim of aggression by an Axis power, was given the honour of signing first.

However, the UN did not come into existence at the signing of the UN Charter. In many countries, the UN Charter had to be approved by their governments. Therefore, it had been decided that the UN Charter would come into effect when the governments of the “Big Five” and a majority of the other signatory states had ratified it.

On 24 October 1945, this condition was fulfilled and the UN officially came into existence. Four years of planning and the hope of many years had materialized in an international organization designed to end war and promote peace, justice, and better living for all humankind.

[Extracted from History of the United Nations, United Nations, Model United Nations]

16. What was the principal objective of the United Nations Conference on International Organization (UNCIO)?

A. To establish an international court for prosecuting Axis powers

B. To produce a charter for a new international organization acceptable to all participating countries

C. To abolish the veto power of the major powers

D. To formulate peace treaties between the Allied and Axis powers

Answer: B

17. Which condition had to be satisfied before the UN Charter could come into effect?

A. Ratification by all 50 participating nations

B. Ratification by two-thirds of the participating nations only

C. Ratification by the Big Five and a majority of the other signatory states

D. Unanimous approval by the permanent members of the Security Council alone

Answer: C

18. When did the San Francisco Conference take place?

A. 25 April to 26 June 1945

B. 24 April to 25 June 1945

C. 25 May to 26 July 1945

D. 24 October to 26 December 1945

Answer: A

19. Which of the following was not one of the “Big Five” mentioned in the passage?

A. China

B. France

C. Germany

D. United Kingdom

Answer: C

20. Where was the UN Charter unanimously passed on 25 June 1945?

A. Veterans’ Memorial Hall

B. San Francisco Opera House

C. United Nations Headquarters

D. White House

Answer: B

V. In our considered opinion, the doctrine of forum non conveniens has been misapplied by the Division Bench in the context of writ jurisdiction referable to Article 226 of the Constitution. Such article permits filing of a writ petition as per situs of office of the respondent(s) [clause (1)] and cause of action [clause (2)] which gives the right of action. Where the question of pursuing a constitutional remedy is involved and invocation of writ jurisdiction is traceable to clause (1) of Article 226, the doctrine of forum non conveniens may rarely apply. When a writ of or in the nature of Certiorari is prayed, Rule Nisi requires the records of the case to be placed before the Court for examining whether the order under challenge, which is part of the records, deserves to be quashed or not by a writ of or in the nature of Certiorari. Such records would invariably be available in the offices of the respondents; if not, it can readily be called for from the custodian thereof. A suitor having himself chosen the forum convenient to the respondents, application of the doctrine of forum non conveniens could be self-defeating and likely to deny access to justice rather than advancing it.

[Extracted from Baksish Ahmad v. Union of India (2026 INSC 630)]

21. What does the doctrine of forum non conveniens permit a court to do?

A. Exercise jurisdiction even when it has no territorial jurisdiction

B. Dismiss or stay proceedings when another forum is more appropriate

C. Transfer every cross-border dispute to an international tribunal

D. Refuse to apply foreign law in all cases

Answer: B

22. The historical origins of the doctrine of forum non conveniens are generally traced to:

A. Roman law

B. French law

C. Scottish law

D. German law

Answer: C

23. Which landmark English case is associated with the modern framework governing forum non conveniens?

A. Donoghue v. Stevenson

B. Spiliada Maritime Corp v. Cansulex Ltd

C. Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.

D. Rylands v. Fletcher

Answer: B

24. The writ of Certiorari is generally issued by:

A. A lower court to a higher court

B. A higher court to a lower court or tribunal

C. A tribunal to the legislature

D. The executive to a judicial authority

Answer: B

25. Historically, Certiorari is classified as a:

A. Prerogative writ

B. Legislative writ

C. Contractual remedy

D. Private law remedy

Answer: A

VI. Article 14 of the Constitution of India, guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws. Article 15(1) prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. Article 21 protects the right to live with dignity. These guarantees must be interpreted in light of the constitutional commitment to secure social and economic justice embodied in the Directive Principles of State Policy. Article 39(a), in particular, mandates that the State direct its policy towards securing that men and women equally have the right to an adequate means of livelihood. Article 39(c) provides that the State shall direct its policy to ensure that operation of economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.

[Extracted from Kulsum Nisha v. State of U.P. & Ors. (2026 INSC 617)]

26. According to the passage, Article 14 of the Constitution guarantees:

A. Equal opportunity in matters of public employment

B. Equality before the law and equal protection of the laws

C. Protection against discrimination only on the ground of sex

D. Equal means of livelihood for men and women

Answer: B

27. Which of the following grounds is NOT expressly mentioned in Article 15(1) in the passage?

A. Religion

B. Race

C. Language

D. Place of birth

Answer: C

28. According to the passage, the right to live with dignity is protected under:

A. Article 14

B. Article 15(1)

C. Article 21

D. Article 39(a)

Answer: C

29. Article 39(a), as referred to in the passage, directs the State to secure:

A. Equal pay for equal work

B. Free legal aid to economically weaker sections

C. That men and women equally have the right to an adequate means of livelihood

D. Equal distribution of all private property

Answer: C

30. Which Article expressly provides that the Directive Principles shall not be enforceable by any court?

A. Article 32

B. Article 36

C. Article 37

D. Article 39

Answer: C

VII.We also clarify the role of the Labour Court in the post-remand proceedings. Once the domestic enquiry was found defective and the Respondent-management was permitted to prove the misconduct before the Labour Court, the Labour Court was required to decide whether the charges stood proved on the evidence adduced before it. Any observation by the Labour Court describing the misconduct as grave or serious could not substitute the independent satisfaction of the competent authority on the question of penalty. Similarly, the finding that the earlier show-cause notice dated 25.04.2008 was legal and proper could not relieve the competent authority of its obligation to consider the findings which ultimately survived after remand and to apply its own mind on the quantum of punishment.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Surekha Domaji Bele v. Executive Engineer, Testing Division, MSEDCL, 2026 INSC 639]

31. According to the passage, once the domestic enquiry was found defective and the management was permitted to prove misconduct before the Labour Court, the primary function of the Labour Court was to:

A. Determine the appropriate punishment for the employee

B. Decide whether the charges stood proved on the evidence adduced before it

C. Validate the findings of the defective domestic enquiry

D. Reinstate the employee without examining the evidence

Answer: B

32. The Labour Court’s observation that the misconduct was “grave or serious” could not:

A. Be considered by the management at all

B. Be recorded in its decision

C. Substitute the independent satisfaction of the competent authority regarding penalty

D. Be challenged by the employee

Answer: C

33. Which of the following best describes a Labour Court exercising adjudicatory functions?

A. A purely administrative body

B. A legislative body

C. A specialised adjudicatory forum dealing with industrial disputes

D. A criminal court exercising jurisdiction under the CrPC alone

Answer: C

34. A Labour Court dealing with dismissal ordinarily examines:

A. Only whether the dismissal letter was signed

B. The legality and justification of the disciplinary action within its statutory jurisdiction

C. Only the employee’s length of service

D. Only the employer’s financial condition

Answer: B

35. Which of the following correctly distinguishes a Labour Court from an ordinary civil court?

A. A Labour Court exercises specialised statutory jurisdiction over specified industrial disputes

B. A Labour Court possesses unlimited civil jurisdiction

C. A Labour Court is a criminal court

D. There is no distinction between the two

Answer: A

VIII. A registered instrument carries a strong presumption of due and valid execution, and a party seeking to impeach such a document must overcome that presumption by producing evidence of a clear and compelling character. Mere suspicion, conjecture or peripheral inconsistencies are insufficient. The challenge must be founded on material capable of demonstrating fraud, fabrication, non-execution or some other fundamental defect going to the very validity of the transaction.

It is equally significant that attestation is not an essential condition for the validity of a sale deed. A sale deed stands on a different statutory footing from instruments for which attestation is expressly mandated, such as a will or a gift deed. Therefore, an inconsistency or error concerning the particulars of an attesting witness does not, without something more substantial, cast doubt upon the execution of a registered sale deed. Such a discrepancy assumes little significance where the execution and registration of the instrument are otherwise established and the statutory presumption in favour of the registered document remains unrebutted.

[Extracted with edits from Sarafat Ali (Deceased) Through LRs & Ors. v. Deputy Director of Consolidation, Haridwar & Ors., Civil Appeal No. 8705 of 2026]

36. Which of the following statements regarding attestation of a sale deed is correct?

A. A sale deed must necessarily be attested by two witnesses

B. A sale deed must necessarily be attested by at least one witness

C. Attestation is not a statutory requirement for the validity of a sale deed

D. Absence of attestation makes every sale deed void

Answer: C

37. The expression “attested” is defined under which provision of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

A. Section 3

B. Section 5

C. Section 7

D. Section 54

Answer: A

38. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

A. Sale — Section 54

B. Gift — Section 122

C. Transfer of gift — Section 123

D. All of the above

Answer: D

39. A sale of tangible immovable property of the value of ₹100 and upwards can be made:

A. Only by delivery of possession

B. Only by a registered instrument

C. By an oral agreement followed by possession

D. Either orally or by an unregistered instrument

Answer: B

40. Where ownership of one thing is mutually transferred for ownership of another, neither thing nor both things being money only, the transaction is known as:

A. Sale

B. Gift

C. Exchange

D. Mortgage

Answer: C

IX. The appellants submitted that, having rendered continuous service for more than a decade, they were entitled to consideration for regularisation in accordance with the principles laid down by the Supreme Court in State of Karnataka v. Uma Devi. They contended that the State could not continue to avail itself of their services while denying them consideration for regularisation by taking advantage of the unequal bargaining position between the parties. Such treatment, according to the appellants, was inconsistent with the principles of equity and fairness and contrary to the constitutional mandate of ensuring dignity in public employment.

The appellants also questioned the validity of the condition in their appointment letters which barred them from claiming regularisation or permanent absorption. They argued that such a stipulation was opposed to public policy and, therefore, hit by Section 23 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. At the time of their initial appointment, the appellants were unemployed persons seeking employment and were consequently not in a position to bargain with the respondent-State on equal terms. They, therefore, lacked any real bargaining power or meaningful choice in accepting the conditions imposed upon them.

[Extracted with edits from Bhola Nath v. State of Jharkhand & Ors., SLP (Civil) No. 30762 of 2024]

41. An agreement whose object or consideration is opposed to public policy is:

A. Valid unless expressly prohibited by statute

B. Void

C. Voidable at the option of the weaker party

D. Enforceable with the permission of the court

Answer: B

42. Which of the following is NOT expressly mentioned in Section 23 as a ground for treating the consideration or object of an agreement as unlawful?

A. It is forbidden by law

B. It is fraudulent

C. It is opposed to public policy

D. The consideration is inadequate

Answer: D

43. Under Section 23 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the consideration or object of an agreement is lawful unless it:

A. Is inadequate in the opinion of the court

B. Is forbidden by law

C. Is not reduced to writing

D. Provides an advantage to only one party

Answer: B

44. Which Supreme Court decision was relied upon by the appellants in support of their claim?

A. State of Punjab v. Jagjit Singh

B. Secretary, State of Karnataka v. Uma Devi

C. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

D. D.S. Nakara v. Union of India

Answer: B

45. A agrees to sell his house to B for ₹10,000. What constitutes the consideration for A’s promise to sell the house?

A. B’s promise to pay ₹10,000

B. A’s ownership of the house

C. Delivery of possession of the house

D. Registration of the sale deed

Answer: A

X. In Veena Gupta and another v. Central Pollution Control Board, the issue that directly concerned the Supreme Court was whether the National Green Tribunal (NGT) should afford an opportunity of hearing to an affected party. The Court took judicial note of the NGT’s “recurrent engagement in unilateral decision making” and deprecated the practice. The Supreme Court observed:

“The National Green Tribunal’s recurrent engagement in unilateral decision making, provisioning ex post facto review hearing and routinely dismissing it has regrettably become a prevailing norm. In its zealous quest for justice, the Tribunal must tread carefully to avoid the oversight of propriety. The practice of ex parte orders and the imposition of damages amounting to crores of rupees, have proven to be a counterproductive force in the broader mission of environmental safeguarding.”

……………………….In Grasim Industries v. State of Madhya Pradesh and another, the order of the NGT was set aside for want of an opportunity of hearing to the affected party. The Supreme Court referred to its judgment in Municipal Corporation of Greater Mumbai v. Ankita Sinha and ultimately set aside the NGT’s order, remanding the matter to the Tribunal for fresh consideration after affording the affected party an opportunity of hearing.

[Extracted from M/s Golden Marine Harvest v. National Green Tribunal & Ors., W.P. Nos. 30717 and 29856 of 2022]

46. In Veena Gupta and another v. Central Pollution Control Board, the principal issue before the Supreme Court concerned:

A. Jurisdiction of the NGT to award environmental compensation

B. Power of the CPCB to close polluting industries

C. Requirement of affording an opportunity of hearing to an affected party before the NGT

D. Constitutional validity of the National Green Tribunal Act

Answer: C

47. The Supreme Court in Veena Gupta expressed concern over the NGT’s recurrent practice of:

A. Refusing to exercise suo motu jurisdiction

B. Unilateral decision-making followed by ex post facto review hearings

C. Referring environmental disputes to High Courts

D. Declining to impose environmental compensation

Answer: B

48. If the NGT passes an order imposing substantial environmental compensation against X without giving X an opportunity to present its case, the most directly applicable ground of challenge would be:

A. Violation of audi alteram partem

B. Violation of nemo judex in causa sua

C. Double jeopardy

D. Promissory estoppel

Answer: A

49. What course was ultimately adopted by the Supreme Court in Grasim Industries?

A. The proceedings before the NGT were permanently quashed

B. The matter was transferred to the High Court

C. The NGT’s order was affirmed with modifications

D. The order was set aside and the matter remanded to the NGT for fresh consideration

Answer: D

50. The Principal Bench of the National Green Tribunal is situated at:

A. Mumbai

B. New Delhi

C. Bhopal

D. Chennai

Answer: B

XI. Taking note of the submissions of the learned counsel appearing for the parties as well as taking note of the above referred orders of the Hon’ble Apex Court, we do not deem it fit to go into the merits of the case. We deem it appropriate to set aside the order passed by the learned Single Judge and remit the matter to the learned Single Judge with liberty to the respondent/assessee to lay challenge to Section 147A of the Act, keeping open all the contentions of the parties, including the observations made by the Hon’ble Apex Court in order dated 04.05.2026 in SLP(C).No.8456/2025 and Connected Appeals.

[Extracted from Central Board Of Direct Taxes v. M/S. S V And Sons, WA No. 1063 of 2026]

51. According to the passage, what course did the Court adopt?

A. It decided the dispute on merits

B. It dismissed the appeal and affirmed the Single Judge’s order

C. It set aside the Single Judge’s order and remitted the matter for reconsideration

D. It declared Section 147A unconstitutional

Answer: C

52. The respondent/assessee was specifically granted liberty to:

A. seek exemption from payment of income tax

B. challenge Section 147A of the Act

C. challenge the constitutional validity of the entire Act

D. approach the Supreme Court directly

Answer: B

53. A court’s decision to “set aside” an order ordinarily means that the order:

A. continues to operate unchanged

B. is annulled or rendered ineffective

C. becomes binding precedent

D. is automatically affirmed by a higher court

Answer: B

54. An Assessing Officer, while carrying out assessment proceedings, primarily performs:

A. legislative functions

B. diplomatic functions

C. statutory and quasi-judicial functions

D. purely contractual functions

Answer: C

55. While making a best judgment assessment, the Assessing Officer is required to take into account:

A. Only the return filed by the assessee

B. Only information supplied by third parties

C. All relevant material gathered by the Assessing Officer

D. Only the previous year’s assessment

Answer: C

XII. In the very same judgment, the Allahabad High Court, has also referred to a case appearing in the All England Law Reports titled In re Schar Midland Bank Executor and Trustee Co. Ltd. v. Damer which held as follows: “the unity of the estate and of the interest in the estate enures for the benefit of each and all and….. each and all have one undivided and indivisible property in the subject-matter.” The issue stands conclusively settled in CWT v. Chander Sen. The Court held that when property devolves upon a son under Section 8, the son takes it in his individual capacity and not as karta of his own Hindu Undivided Family. Once again, employing the means of a simple illustration-suppose ‘A’ dies intestate after 1956 leaving behind his son ‘B’. ‘B’ inherits ‘A’s property under Section 8. Under Mitakshara doctrine, ‘B’s son ‘C’ would automatically acquire a birthright in that property, and ‘B’ would hold it as karta of the joint family consisting of himself and ‘C’. However, since the property devolved through Section 8 succession, ‘B’ takes the property as his separate property. ‘C’ acquires no right in it by birth merely because it once belonged to ‘A’.

[Extracted from Darubai & Anr. v. Kamalabai & Ors., Arising out of Special Leave Petition (Civil) No. 13232 of 2022]

56. According to CWT v. Chander Sen, when property devolves upon a son under Section 8 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, he takes the property:

A. As karta of his Hindu Undivided Family

B. As ancestral property for himself and his sons

C. In his individual capacity

D. As a trustee for all coparceners

Answer: C

57. Which provision is central to the principle discussed in CWT v. Chander Sen?

A. Section 6 of the Hindu Succession Act

B. Section 8 of the Hindu Succession Act

C. Section 14 of the Hindu Succession Act

D. Section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act

Answer: B

58. Mitakshara is primarily a commentary on:

A. Manusmriti

B. Naradasmriti

C. Yajnavalkya Smriti

D. Arthashastra

Answer: C

59. The Karta ordinarily has the power to alienate joint family property without the consent of all coparceners when the alienation is for:

A. Personal luxury

B. Legal necessity

C. Speculative investment

D. Any purpose chosen by the Karta

Answer: B

60. The expression “benefit of estate” in relation to a Karta’s power of alienation generally refers to:

A. Any transaction that the Karta personally prefers

B. A transaction undertaken for the protection, preservation or benefit of the joint family estate

C. Transfer of property exclusively for the Karta’s personal benefit

D. A compulsory partition of the family

Answer: B

XIII. Nuisances are divided into public nuisances and private nuisances. The former is an offence, but is also actionable as a tort on proof of special damage. The latter is essentially a tort. Winfield defines private nuisance as ‘unlawful interference with a person’s use or enjoyment of land or some right over or in connection with it. There is abundant case-law of the high courts in India relating to private nuisance as a tort and there is found, in some of the judgements, quite a lucid exposition of the law and elaborate review of Indian case-law.

[Extracted from The Law of Torts by P.M. Bakshi]

61. According to the passage, nuisance is broadly divided into:

A. Civil and criminal nuisance

B. Public and private nuisance

C. Absolute and qualified nuisance

D. Direct and indirect nuisance

Answer: B

62. A public nuisance becomes actionable as a tort by an individual upon proof of:

A. Malice

B. Negligence

C. Special damage

D. Criminal intention

Answer: C

63. Who is credited in the passage with defining private nuisance as an “unlawful interference with a person’s use or enjoyment of land or some right over or in connection with it”?

A. Salmond

B. Austin

C. Winfield

D. Pollock

Answer: C

64. According to the passage, public nuisance is primarily:

A. A breach of contract

B. An offence

C. A constitutional wrong

D. A form of strict liability only

Answer: B

65. A person blocks a public highway, causing inconvenience to the community generally. This is primarily an example of:

A. Private nuisance

B. Public nuisance

C. Trespass to goods

D. Negligent misstatement

Answer: B

XIV. The learned Senior Counsel would contend that the arrest of accused No. 1 was illegal and contrary to the principles laid down in several judgments of the Supreme Court, as the grounds of arrest were not furnished to him. He would further submit that there was no material to establish that the deceased was subjected to cruelty or harassment soon before her death so as to attract the ingredients of Section 304B of the IPC/Section 80 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023. Emphasis was also placed on the fact that accused Nos. 5 and 6 were not relatives of the deceased or accused No. 1 by blood, marriage or adoption and, therefore, had been unnecessarily implicated in the proceedings without any justifiable basis.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Vinay Kumar S. & Ors. v. State of Karnataka & Anr., Writ Petition No. 18828 of 2025]

66. The principal challenge raised regarding the arrest of accused No. 1 was that:

A. No arrest warrant had been issued

B. The grounds of arrest were not furnished to the accused

C. The accused was arrested outside the territorial jurisdiction

D. The arrest was made after filing of the charge sheet

Answer: B

67. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of dowry death is contained in:

A. Section 79

B. Section 80

C. Section 85

D. Section 86

Answer: B

68. Section 80 of the BNS, 2023 broadly corresponds to which provision of the IPC?

A. Section 302

B. Section 304A

C. Section 304B

D. Section 498A

Answer: C

69. For the offence of dowry death, the cruelty or harassment must have been inflicted upon the woman:

A. At any time after her marriage

B. Only on the day of her death

C. Subsequently before her death

D. Soon before her death

Answer: D

70. Which of the following activities may fall within organised crime under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, subject to the statutory requirements?

A. Kidnapping

B. Robbery

C. Vehicle theft

D. All of the above

Answer: D

XV. The object of clause (1) of Articles 341 and 342 was to avoid disputes regarding whether a caste or tribe is a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe for the purposes of the Constitution. Whether a particular caste or tribe is a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe, as the case may be, within the meaning of the entries contained in the Presidential Orders issued under clause (1) of Articles 341 and 342 is to be determined by looking at the entries as they stand. Clause (2) of the said Articles does not permit anyone to seek modification of the said Orders by leading evidence to establish that a caste or tribe other than the one mentioned in the Order should be deemed to be a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe, as the case may be. It is only Parliament that is competent to amend the Orders issued under Articles 341 and 342.

[Extracted from Chandra Shekhar Nishad v. Union of India, Writ-C No. 4422 of 2012.]

71. What is the primary object of clause (1) of Articles 341 and 342 of the Constitution?

A. To empower State Legislatures to identify backward classes

B. To avoid disputes regarding whether a caste or tribe is a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe

C. To permit courts to determine Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe status

D. To authorise the Election Commission to maintain a list of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

Answer: B

72. Who is competent to amend the Presidential Orders issued under Articles 341 and 342?

A. President of India acting independently

B. Supreme Court of India

C. Parliament

D. State Legislature concerned

Answer: C

73. Parliament’s power under Article 341(2) extends to:

A. Inclusion only

B. Exclusion only

C. Both inclusion and exclusion

D. Neither inclusion nor exclusion

Answer: C

74. Where the specification under Article 341(1) relates to a State, the President acts after consultation with:

A. Chief Minister of the State

B. State Legislature

C. High Court of the State

D. Governor of the State

Answer: D

75. Consider the following statements:

1. Article 342 relates to Scheduled Tribes.

2. The President makes the initial specification under Article 342(1).

3. Parliament may subsequently include or exclude a tribe under Article 342(2).

4. A Presidential notification under Article 342(1) may freely be varied by another Presidential notification.

Which of the above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1, 2 and 3 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

XVI. The concept of permanent alimony under Section 25 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is intended to alleviate the financial hardship of a spouse who does not have an independent income sufficient to maintain himself or herself. The provision seeks to ensure financial support to a husband or wife who lacks adequate means for sustenance. At the same time, the entitlement to such relief is subject to the statutory conditions, and a party may be deprived of the benefit upon proof of circumstances recognised by law, including sexual intercourse outside the wedlock. It is also well settled that permanent alimony may be granted by the Court while disposing of the principal matrimonial proceedings or at any time thereafter, upon an application being made for such relief. The underlying object of Sections 24 and 25 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is to mitigate the financial hardship faced by a spouse who does not possess sufficient independent means. The Court is, therefore, empowered to pass an appropriate order at the appropriate stage so as to provide financial support necessary for the sustenance of such spouse.

[Extracted with edits from Sandhya Devi v. Rajesh Kumar Singh (2026:JHHC:17922-DB)].

76. The primary object of Section 25 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is to:

A. Punish the defaulting spouse

B. Provide financial support to a spouse lacking sufficient independent means

C. Compensate a spouse for breakdown of marriage

D. Provide maintenance only to the wife

Answer: B

77. Permanent alimony under Section 25 of the Hindu Marriage Act may be claimed by:

A. Only the wife

B. Only the husband

C. Either the husband or the wife

D. Only the spouse who initiated the matrimonial proceedings

Answer: C

78. Under Section 25 of the Hindu Marriage Act, permanent alimony may be granted:

A. Only before the matrimonial petition is decided

B. Only at the time of passing the decree

C. Only after dissolution of marriage

D. At the time of passing any decree or at any time subsequent thereto

Answer: D

79. Which of the following best describes Section 25 of the Hindu Marriage Act?

A. An enabling provision empowering the Court to grant permanent alimony and maintenance

B. A penal provision

C. A provision dealing exclusively with interim litigation expenses

D. A provision applicable only to divorce by mutual consent

Answer: A

80. Which of the following is expressly covered by Section 25(3)?

A. Remarriage of the party receiving permanent alimony

B. Change of employment

C. Change of residence

D. Increase in the cost of living

Answer: A

XVII. We are, therefore, of the considered view that the exclusion of married daughters from the definition of “family” fails the test of reasonable classification and is manifestly arbitrary. The distinction created by Paragraph IV(10) of the G.O. lacks any intelligible differentia having a rational nexus with the object of the scheme. The exclusion is founded solely upon marital status and gender stereotypes and consequently, violates Articles 14 and 15(1) of the Constitution of India.

[Extracted from Kulsum Nisha v. State of U.P. & Ors. (2026 INSC 617)]

81. The exclusion of married daughters from the definition of “family” was held to violate which constitutional provisions?

A. Articles 14 and 16

B. Articles 14 and 15(1)

C. Articles 15 and 21

D. Articles 19 and 21

Answer: B

82. According to the passage, the classification excluding married daughters failed because it lacked:

A. Legislative competence

B. Procedural safeguards

C. An intelligible differentia having a rational nexus with the object of the scheme

D. Presidential assent

Answer: C

83. The exclusion of married daughters was described by the Court as:

A. Reasonable but discriminatory

B. Constitutionally permissible

C. A valid affirmative-action measure

D. Manifestly arbitrary

Answer: D

84. Which factor was the basis for excluding married daughters according to the passage?

A. Age

B. Educational qualification

C. Marital status and gender stereotypes

D. Economic status alone

Answer: C

85. Which constitutional principle is most directly reflected in the expression “manifestly arbitrary” in the passage?

A. Equality before law under Article 14

B. Freedom of association under Article 19

C. Protection against double jeopardy under Article 20

D. Constitutional remedies under Article 32

Answer: A

XVIII. The Hon’ble Supreme Court held that merely because the expression “investigation” is used in the PMLA for various actions carried out by the authorised officer, it does not limit itself to matters of “investigation” as defined in Section 2(h) of the Cr.P.C. It was held that the expression “investigation” is interchangeable with the function of “inquiry” to be undertaken by the authorities under the PMLA, including collection of evidence for being presented to the adjudicating authority for its consideration and for confirmation of provisional attachment order. It was also held in paragraph No. 194 of Vijay Madanlal (supra) that the provisions of the PMLA are not only to investigate into the offence of money laundering, but more importantly, to prevent money laundering and to provide for confiscation of property related to money laundering and matters connected therewith and incidental thereto.”

[Extracted from M/s Cochin Minerals and Rutile Ltd. & Ors. v. Directorate of Enforcement (2026:KER:38687)]

86. Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the term “investigation” is defined under:

A. Section 2(1)(h)

B. Section 2(1)(i)

C. Section 2(1)(j)

D. Section 2(1)(l)

Answer: D

87. According to the passage, the use of the expression “investigation” under the PMLA means that:

A. It must necessarily carry the same restricted meaning as under criminal procedure law

B. It is confined to investigation of the scheduled offence

C. It may encompass the function of inquiry undertaken by PMLA authorities

D. It can only be conducted by police officers

Answer: C

88. Under the BNSS, an “inquiry” is best understood as:

A. Every inquiry, other than a trial, conducted under the BNSS by a Magistrate or Court

B. Every investigation conducted by a police officer

C. Proceedings exclusively conducted by the Enforcement Directorate

D. Proceedings for attachment of property only

Answer: A

89. According to Vijay Madanlal Choudhary, as referred to in the passage, the PMLA is concerned with:

A. Investigation of money laundering alone

B. Punishment of scheduled offences alone

C. Prevention of money laundering and confiscation of property related to money laundering, besides investigation

D. Resolution of disputes concerning ownership of property

Answer: C

90. In a trial before a Court of Session, the evidence of each witness shall be taken down in writing:

A. Only after completion of the witness’s examination

B. As the examination of the witness proceeds

C. Only after completion of cross-examination

D. At the stage of final arguments

Answer: B

XIX. In the present case, there is no evidence on record to establish that the appellant/plaintiff possessed the requisite balance sale consideration at any material stage, whether on the date of execution of the agreement, during the stipulated four-month period fixed for completion of the transaction, or even when the suit was instituted in 1993. The High Court, therefore, correctly held that the plaintiff’s financial capacity must be demonstrated with reference to the relevant period. Financial documents prepared or obtained long after the institution of the suit cannot, by themselves, establish the availability of funds at the time when performance of the contractual obligation was due.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Mohammed Khaleel (D) through LRs & Ors. v. Jayamma, 2026 INSC 651]

91. The agreement in the passage stipulated a period of:

A. Two months

B. Three months

C. Four months

D. Six months

Answer: C

92. The appellant/plaintiff was required to establish the availability of the balance sale consideration:

A. Only on the date of filing the appeal

B. With reference to the relevant period when contractual performance was required

C. Only on the date of judgment

D. At any point before the final disposal of the suit

Answer: B

93. The principle discussed in the passage is most closely connected with which remedy?

A. Specific performance of contract

B. Rescission of contract

C. Quantum meruit

D. Injunction against a public authority

Answer: A

94. Which of the following may affect free consent under the Indian Contract Act?

A. Coercion

B. Undue influence

C. Fraud

D. All of the above

Answer: D

95. When parties substitute a new contract for an existing contract, the principle is known as:

A. Remission

B. Novation

C. Restitution

D. Appropriation

Answer: B

XX. In our judgment, the law relating to custody of a child is fairly well settled and it is this: in deciding a difficult and complex question as to the custody of a minor, a court of law should keep in mind the relevant statutes and the rights flowing therefrom. But such cases cannot be decided solely by interpreting legal provisions. It is a human problem and is required to be solved with human touch. A court while dealing with custody cases, is neither bound by statutes nor by strict rules of evidence or procedure nor by precedents. In selecting proper guardian of a minor, the paramount consideration should be the welfare and well-being of the child. In selecting a guardian, the court is exercising parens patriae jurisdiction and is expected, nay bound, to give due weight to a child’s ordinary comfort, contentment, health, education, intellectual development and favourable surroundings. But over and above physical comforts, moral and ethical values cannot be ignored. They are equally, or we may say, even more important, essential and indispensable considerations. If the minor is old enough to form an intelligent preference or judgment, the court must consider such preference as well, though the final decision should rest with the court as to what is conducive to the welfare of the minor.

[Extracted from Sri Nandhini Devi @ Srinandhini Devi Saravanan & Ors. v. State of Tamil Nadu & Ors., CRL RC No. 950 of 2026]

96. According to the passage, what is the paramount consideration while deciding the guardianship or custody of a minor?

A. Statutory rights of the father

B. Statutory rights of the mother

C. Welfare and well-being of the child

D. Financial capacity of the proposed guardian

Answer: C

97. The passage states that child custody disputes should primarily be approached as:

A. Questions of statutory interpretation alone

B. Human problems requiring a human touch

C. Questions governed strictly by precedent

D. Proceedings governed exclusively by rules of evidence

Answer: B

98. While selecting a guardian for a minor, the court exercises which jurisdiction?

A. Inherent jurisdiction

B. Supervisory jurisdiction

C. Parens patriae jurisdiction

D. Appellate jurisdiction

Answer: C

99. The ultimate test governing a court’s decision in a child custody dispute, as reflected in the passage, is:

A. Which parent possesses a superior legal right

B. Which parent first instituted the custody proceedings

C. Which parent can provide greater material comfort

D. What is conducive to the welfare of the minor

Answer: D

100. Which of the following, according to the passage, should be considered while determining the welfare of a child?

1. Ordinary comfort and contentment

2. Health and education

3. Intellectual development

4. Moral and ethical values

Select the correct answer:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1, 2 and 3 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

XXI. The dignity and privacy of a woman cannot be allowed to remain vulnerable to the misuse of a fabricated online profile. The creation and circulation of a morphed image cannot be dismissed as a trivial digital act or an innocent prank. Such conduct constitutes a deliberate intrusion into an individual’s privacy and has serious consequences for her dignity, reputation and emotional well-being. Considering the speed and reach with which unlawful digital content can be disseminated, the response of law-enforcement authorities must be equally prompt and effective.

In light of the foregoing discussion, the Writ Petition is disposed of with the following directions:

i. The second respondent shall forthwith consider the petitioner’s complaint dated 20.03.2026 and undertake an immediate verification of the materials and information furnished by her.

ii. If, upon such verification, the complaint prima facie discloses the commission of any cognizable offence, the second respondent shall promptly register an FIR under the applicable provisions of the Information Technology Act, 2000 and the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, and proceed further in accordance with law.

[Extracted with edits and revision from R. Ramesh Kumar v. Superintendent of Police & Ors., W.P.Crl.(MD) No. 2027 of 2026]

101. What was the first direction issued to the second respondent?

A. To immediately arrest the accused

B. To block all social-media platforms concerned

C. To consider the petitioner’s complaint and immediately verify the materials furnished

D. To file a charge sheet without investigation

Answer: C

102. Under the directions contained in the passage, registration of an FIR becomes necessary when:

A. The petitioner merely requests registration

B. The complaint discloses the commission of a cognizable offence

C. The accused admits creating the fake profile

D. A civil court first grants an injunction

Answer: B

103. Consider the following statements:

1. The Court directed automatic registration of an FIR without examining the complaint.

2. The Court required immediate verification of the materials furnished by the petitioner.

3. Registration of an FIR was directed if the complaint disclosed a cognizable offence.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

104. Which constitutional value is most directly reflected in the Court’s concern regarding morphed images and fake profiles?

A. Freedom of trade

B. Dignity and privacy of the individual

C. Freedom of movement

D. Protection against double jeopardy

Answer: B

105. Which of the following is NOT specifically identified in the passage as being affected by a morphed image?

A. Privacy

B. Reputation

C. Emotional Well-Being

D. Property ownership

Answer: D

XXII. The reliance placed by the revisionist upon the pension and properties of the mother of opposite party no.2 is also misplaced. The legal obligation to maintain the wife is that of the husband. The pension of the mother or properties allegedly belonging to the mother cannot be treated as the independent income of the wife. The learned Family Court has also noticed that although sale deeds relating to properties sold by the mother were filed, no material was produced to establish that any property stood in the exclusive name or possession of opposite party no.2. Opposite party no.2 also clarified that the properties had been sold by her mother for marriage expenses and repayment of liabilities and that her own share was limited. Thus, no sufficient independent source of income of opposite party no.2 was established.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Alok Tiwari v. State of U.P. & Anr., Criminal Revision No. 5768 of 2024]

106. According to the passage, the legal obligation to maintain the wife primarily rests upon:

A. The wife’s parents

B. The husband

C. The wife’s mother if she receives a pension

D. Both families equally

Answer: B

107. The pension received by the wife’s mother was held to be:

A. Independent income of the wife

B. Joint matrimonial income

C. Irrelevant for treating the wife as having independent income

D. Sufficient by itself to deny maintenance

Answer: C

108. According to opposite party no.2, her mother had sold the properties primarily for:

A. Purchasing property for opposite party no.2

B. Investment in a family business

C. Payment of maintenance expenses

D. Marriage expenses and repayment of liabilities

Answer: D

109. An application for interim maintenance and expenses of proceedings should, as far as possible, be disposed of within:

A. 30 days from filing

B. 45 days from service of notice

C. 60 days from service of notice

D. 90 days from filing

Answer: C

110. For every breach of a maintenance order, imprisonment may extend to:

A. Fifteen days

B. One month, or until payment if sooner made

C. Three months in every case

D. Six months

Answer: B

XXIII. Let the Gram Panchayat take up this matter in its General Body Meeting and pass a resolution delineating how these deficiencies can be mitigated and removed with the active assistance and cooperation of the local villagers. Since this is the only school operational within the Gram Panchayat and there is no alternative Government school available, closing down the institution would directly jeopardise the academic future of the local children. Therefore, instead of shutting down or withdrawing the recognition of the private school, constructive and coordinated efforts must be made by all stakeholders to systematically eliminate the highlighted deficiencies in the public interest.

[Extracted from Manggi Bai Kole & Ors. v. State of Madhya Pradesh & Ors., WP-43662-2025]

111. What was the principal approach suggested in the passage for addressing the deficiencies in the school?

A. Immediate closure of the school

B. Withdrawal of its recognition

C. Resolution by the Gram Panchayat coupled with community cooperation

D. Transfer of all students to private schools outside the Panchayat

Answer: C

112. Why does the passage discourage closing down the school?

A. Because a private school can never be closed by the State

B. Because it is the only operational school within the Gram Panchayat and no alternative Government school is available

C. Because the Gram Panchayat has exclusive authority over all private schools

D. Because recognition once granted cannot be withdrawn

Answer: B

113. Part IX of the Constitution concerning Panchayats was introduced by which Constitutional Amendment?

A. 42nd Amendment

B. 61st Amendment

C. 73rd Amendment

D. 74th Amendment

Answer: C

114. Which Schedule of the Constitution contains subjects that may be entrusted to Panchayats?

A. Seventh Schedule

B. Ninth Schedule

C. Twelfth Schedule

D. Eleventh Schedule

Answer: D

115. Assume that minor deficiencies in the school’s infrastructure are capable of being rectified within three months, but the competent authority nevertheless orders immediate permanent closure without considering any less restrictive measure. Which principle would be most relevant in challenging the decision?

A. Colourable legislation

B. Proportionality

C. Territorial nexus

D. Repugnancy

Answer: B

XXIV. The Hon’ble Supreme Court, in Rohit Chaturvedi v. State of Uttarakhand & Ors., 2026 SCC OnLine SC 865, observed that the nature of the offence, by itself, cannot constitute the sole basis for denying remission. A decision on remission must be founded upon a holistic assessment of the prisoner, while maintaining an appropriate balance between societal interests and the prisoner’s right to have the claim for release considered on fair and reasonable criteria, as laid down in Laxman Naskar (supra).

By the same judgment and order on sentence, the Trial Court had also convicted Tuta Miya along with the petitioner in W.P.(C) No. 5946/2025.

[Extracted with edits and revision from Ganesh Bhumij @ Faloo Karmakar v. State of Assam & Ors., 2026:GAU-AS:9422]

116. According to Rohit Chaturvedi v. State of Uttarakhand & Ors., a decision concerning remission should primarily be based upon:

A. The seriousness of the offence alone

B. The opinion of the Trial Court alone

C. A holistic assessment of the prisoner

D. The period of imprisonment alone

Answer: C

117. According to the passage, which of the following cannot, by itself, constitute the sole ground for denying remission to a prisoner?

A. Conduct of the prisoner

B. Nature of the offence

C. Possibility of rehabilitation

D. Socio-economic condition of the prisoner

Answer: B

118. Which of the following correctly distinguishes Articles 72 and 161 of the Constitution?

A. Article 72 concerns the Governor, while Article 161 concerns the President.

B. Article 72 concerns the President, while Article 161 concerns the Governor.

C. Both provisions confer powers exclusively upon the Supreme Court.

D. Both provisions deal only with remission and not pardon.

Answer: B

119. In a trial before a Court of Session, the evidence of each witness shall be taken down:

A. As the examination of the witness proceeds

B. Only after the examination of all witnesses is completed

C. Only after cross-examination

D. At the discretion of the prosecution

Answer: A

120. Who may personally take down the evidence of a witness in a trial before a Court of Session?

A. Presiding Judge

B. Public Prosecutor

C. Investigating Officer

D. Defence Counsel

Answer: A

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