UGC NET Paper-II June 2026 (Law) Solved Paper | UGC NET Entrance Solved Papers PDF

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UGC NET Paper-II June 2026 (Law) Solved Paper | UGC NET Entrance Solved Papers PDF

1. Which of the following is not part of main tenets of Savigny’s theory of Law?

(1) Law is based on people’s consciousness

(2) Law has conscious organic growth

(3) Law develop like language

(4) Popular spirit of the people reflected in ‘Volksgeist’

2. The board of directors of every listed company and such other class or classes of companies as may be prescribed are required to constitute an Audit committee under which of the following provision of the Companies Act, 2013?

(1) Section 178 of the Companies Act, 2013

(2) Section 180 of the Companies Act, 2013

(3) Section 183 of the Companies Act, 2013

(4) Section 177 of the Companies Act, 2013

3. Consider the following statement relating to separation of power under the USA Constitution

A. The President cannot interfere in exercise of power by legislature.

B. The President may exercise law making power by treaty making.

C. The President has power to appoint judges of the Supreme Court.

D. The Congress may interfere with power of President through vote on budget.

E. The Congress cannot interfere with judicial power by creating special courts.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, C, D only

(2) A, B and C only

(3) B, C and D only

(4) B, D and E only

4. Match List I with List II

LIST I (Geographical Indications)

A. Venkatagiri Sarees

B. Muga Silk

C. Banaras Brocades

D. Chanderi Silk

LIST II (State of Origin)

I. Madhya Pradesh

II. Gujarat

III. Assam

IV. Andhra Pradesh

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

(2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

(4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

5. Arrange the following statutory enactments on environment in their ascending order:

A. Forest Conservation Act.

B. Indian Forest Act.

C. Wildlife Protection Act.

D. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act.

E. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) C, D, E, A, B

(2) B, D, C, E, A

(3) C, E, B, A, E

(4) B, C, D, A, E

6 Which one of the following is an exemption from direct or indirect liability of Internet Service Providers (ISP) and other intermediaries?

(1) Digital Millennium Copyright Act

(2) Digital Millennium Copyright Act

(3) Digital Medium Copyright Act

(4) Digital Marketing Copyright Act

7. Any Muslim husband who pronounces talaq upon his wife shall be punished under the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights of Marriage) Act, 2019 with

(1) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to five years, and shall also be liable to fine.

(2) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years, and shall also be liable to fine.

(3) Either imprisonment for a term which may extend to seven years or fine

(4) Either imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years or fine

8. Which one of the following would not amount to criminal liability for an omission?

(1) Where accused was having a duty to act and he failed.

(2) Where accused was having a duty arising out of contract and he failed, which causes loss to property.

(3) Where accused was having a duty arising out of a sense of religious obligation and he failed.

(4) Where accused was having a duty arising out of a relationship.

9. Match List I with List II

LIST I

A. Muwajjal Mahr

B. Mahr-i-Musamma

C. Muajjal Mahr

D. Mahr-i-Misl

LIST II

I. Specified Dower

II. Customary Dower

III. Deferred Dower

IV. Prompt Dower

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

(3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

(4) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

10. Which of the following judgment of the Supreme Court has held that, “health care services rendered by Medical Practitioners fall under the ambit of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986”?

(1) Medicos Legal Action Group v. Union of India

(2) Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K Gupta

(3) Rohit Chaudhary v. Vipul Ltd.

(4) Faqur Chand Gulati v. Uppal Agencies Pvt. Ltd.

11. Match List I with List II

LIST I

A. Some Reflections in Jurisprudence

B. Elementae Philosophiae

C. Elements of Jurisprudence

D. Elementary Principles of Jurisprudence

LIST II

I. C. G. Keeton

II. Hobbes

III. Julius Stone

IV. Holland

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(2) A-II, B-II, C-I, D-IV

(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

12. Match List I with List II

LIST I

A. Principle of Reciprocity

B. Voluntary Jurisdiction

C. Transferred Jurisdiction

D. Advisory Jurisdiction

LIST II

I. Article 36(1) of ICJ

II. Article 36(2) of ICJ

III. Article 65 of ICJ

IV. Article 36(5) of ICJ

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

13. There shall be an abuse of dominant position, if an enterprise or a group:

A. Imposes directly or indirectly, unfair or discriminatory condition in purchase or sale of goods.

B. Limits or restricts production of goods in the market to the prejudice of consumer.

C. Indulges in practice or practices resulting in denial of market access.

D. The enterprise entered into a combination which causes an adverse effect on competition within the relevant market.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) B, C and D only

(2) A, B and D only

(3) B and D only

(4) A, B and C only

14. Which of the following is/are attribute to H.L.A. Hart’s theory of Conception of Law?

A. Primary rules confer power and secondary rules are duty imposing.

B. Secondary rules enable the legislator to modify their policies according to the needs of the society.

C. The validity of law is to be tested on the basis of rule of recognition.

D. Moral judgement can be defined by rational argument evidence or proof.

E. Legal system must concern with both law as “is” and “as of ought to be”.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B and E only

(2) A, C and D only

(3) B and C only

(4) B, C and D only

15. Doctrine of ‘Ijtihad’ in Islamic Law means:

(1) It refers to accept the jurisdiction and verdict of a mujtahid (jurist) and to act upon it.

(2) It refers to the cases in which the total shares of the shares exceed the heritable property, the fractions are reduced to a common denominator.

(3) It means the independent or original interpretation of problems not precisely covered by the Quran.

(4) It refers on the assumptions of a lawful union between the parents of the acknowledged child.

16. Arrange the following cases of the Supreme Court on Right to Privacy in their ascending order:

A. R. Rajagopal v. State of Tamil Nadu

B. Kharak Singh v. State of UP

C. Govind v. State of M.P.

D. Malak Singh v. State of Punjab

E. PUCL v. UOI

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) E, A, D, C, B

(2) B, C, A, D, E

(3) B, C, D, A, E

(4) C, B, D, E, A

17. Arrange the following landmark decision on the Concept of Lifting the Corporates Veil in ascending order:

A. LIC, India v. Escorts Ltd.

B. Singer India v. Chandra Mohan Chaddha

C. In re R. G. Films Limited

D. Connors Brothers v. Connors

E. Daimler Co. Ltd. v. Continental Tyre and Rubber Company

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) E, D, C, A, B

(2) D, E, C, A, B

(3) E, C, D, B, A

(4) D, E, B, C, A

18. Revocation of driving license on grounds of ‘disease or disability’ is mentioned under which of the following provision of the Motor Vehicle Act, 1988.

(1) Section 14 of the Motor Vehicle Act, 1988.

(2) Section 15 of the Motor Vehicle Act, 1988.

(3) Section 16 of the Motor Vehicle Act, 1988.

(4) Section 17 of the Motor Vehicle Act, 1988.

19. Arrange the following Intellectual Property Laws in Chronological order

A. The Trade Marks Act

B. The Geographical Indication of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act

C. The Patent Act

D. The Biological Diversity Act

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) B, C, A, D

(2) C, A, D, B

(3) A, C, D, B

(4) C, A, B, D

20. Which of the following Section of the Patent Act, 1970 deals with ‘inventions relating to atomic energy’?

(1) Section 34

(2) Section 24

(3) Section 14

(4) Section 4

21. Which of the following doctrine state that, “It is duty of a State to continue diplomatic relations with States without regard to revolutionary change”?

(1) Tobar Doctrine

(2) Estrada Doctrine

(3) Stimson Doctrine

(4) Hallestein Doctrine

22. As per the Section 30 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, which of the following is not an essential elements of a contingent contract?

(1) There must be a valid contract to do or not to do something.

(2) Such act or abstinence must depend on the happening or non-happening of the uncertain event.

(3) An Uncertain event non-necessarily collateral to the contract.

(4) The event should not be at the discretion of promisor.

23. Article 2 of the Convention Relating to the Status of Refugees, 1951 deals with

(1) Principle of non-discrimination

(2) Principle of non-refoulment

(3) General Obligations of the Contracting States towards the refugees

(4) General Obligations of the refugees towards the country in which he finds himself

24. Arrange the following in chronological order of their enactment:

A. The Anti-Hijacking Act.

B. Diplomatic Relations (Vienna Convention) Act.

C. Anti-Apartheid (United Nations Convention) Act.

D. Genocide Convention.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) D, C, A, B

(2) D, B, C, A

(3) C, B, D, A

(4) B, C, D, A

25. Match List I with List II

LIST I

A. State of West Bengal v. Anwar Ali Sarkar (1952)

B. Ashok Kumar Yadav v. State of Haryana (1985)

C. National Legal Service Authority v. Union of India (2014)

D. Dinesh Trivedi v. UOI (1997)

LIST II

I. Viva Voice Test

II. Transgender

III. Special Court for Speedier Trial

IV. Right to Know

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

(4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

26. The legal maxims “In Pari Delicto” refer to:

(1) A mad man has no will.

(2) The crime carries the persons.

(3) In equal fault.

(4) An act done by me against my will.

27. “Tortious liability arises from the breach of a duty primarily fixed by the law. This duty is towards persons generally and its breach is redressible by an action for unliquidated damages” this definition is attributable to which of the following jurist?

(1) Salmond

(2) Winfield

(3) Austin

(4) Fraser

28. Which of the following formulation do not incorporate Prof. A. V. Dicey’s concept of Rule of Law?

(1) Absence or Excess of discretionary power

(2) Absence of discretionary power

(3) Equality before law

(4) Predominance of Legal spirit

Q.79

29. Arrange the following offences against the State under Indian Penal code, 1860 in ascending order:

A. Sedition

B. Waging, or attempting to wage war against the Government of India

C. Public Servant voluntarily allowing prisoner of State or war to escape

D. Waging war against any Asiatic power in alliance with the Government of India

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) B, A, C, D

(2) A, C, B, D

(3) C, D, B, A

(4) B, A, D, C

30. Arrange the chapters of Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 in ascending order (first to last) as mentioned in the Bare Act:

A. Chapter on General exceptions

B. Chapter on Offences against women and child

C. Chapter on Offences against the Human Body

D. Chapter on Punishments

E. Chapter on Offences against the property

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) D, A, B, C, E

(2) E, D, B, A, C

(3) A, B, D, C, E

(4) D, A, E, B, C

31. Consider the following statement relating to functions of NHRC under Protection of Human Right Act, 1993.

A. NHRC may visit any jail or other institution under control of the State Government without intimation to State Government.

B. Undertake and promote research in field of Human Rights.

C. NHRC cannot intervene in any proceeding relating to violation of Human Rights.

D. Review the factor including acts of terrorism that inhibit the enjoyment of Human Rights.

E. NHRC cannot enquire into any matter which is pending before a State Commission or any other Commission duly constituted under any law.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) B and D only

(2) A, B and C only

(3) B, D and E only

(4) A, B and D only

32. Consider the following statement under Right to Education under Article 26 of Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948.

A. Elementary education shall be optional.

B. Technical and professional education shall be made generally available.

C. Education shall be free at elementary and fundamental stages.

D. Higher education shall be equally accessible to all on the basis of Merit.

E. Elementary education shall be compulsory.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) A and B only

(2) A, C and D only

(3) A, B, C and D only

(4) B, C, D and E only

33. Match List I with List II

LIST I (Concept)

A. ‘Agent’ and ‘Principal’

B. ‘Bailment’

C. Contract of Indemnity

D. Contract of Guarantee

LIST II (Provisions)

I. Section 148 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872

II. Section 124 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872

III. Section 126 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872

IV. Section 182 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

(4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

34. The main focus of Marrakesh (VIP) Treaty for Copyright are following:

A. Providing access to published works for visually impaired person.

B. India was the first country to ratify the treaty.

C. The treaty does not have provision to permit cross border sharing of these accessible format works.

D. It aims to ease for countries ratifying the treaty to have a domestic copyright exception.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B, C and D only

(2) A, C and D only

(3) A and B only

(4) A, B and D only

35. “The women have a vital role in environment management and development and full participation of women is essential to achieve sustainable development” was laid down in which one of the following principle of Rio Declaration, 1992?

(1) Principle 20

(2) Principle 21

(3) Principle 23

(4) Principle 24

36. Match List I with List II

LIST I

A. Temple of Prahl Vihar

B. Manomati’s Palestine Concession Case

C. R. v. Keyn

D. Diversion of Water from Muese

LIST II

I. Justice, Equality and Conscience

II. Principle of Estoppel

III. Res Judicata

IV. Principle of Subrogation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

37. Arrange the following International Organization in ascending order of their establishment:

A. International Tele-Communication Union

B. World Intellectual Property Organization

C. International Finance Corporation

D. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development

E. Food and Agricultural Organization

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) D, A, B, C, E

(2) E, D, A, C, B

(3) A, E, D, B, C

(4) B, C, E, D, B

38. Which one of the following jurist defined jurisprudence as the “Science of the first principles of the Civil Law”?

(1) Holland

(2) Bentham

(3) Salmond

(4) Julius Stone

39. In which one of the following case the Supreme Court held that, “not all live-in-relationship are in the nature of marriage”. The Apex Court referred to certain situations in which the relationship between the parties would or would not amount to a relationship in the nature of marriage.

(1) D. Velusamy v. D. Patchaiammal

(2) Indra Sharma v. V.K.V. Sharma

(3) S. Khushboo v. Kanniammal

(4) Lata Singh v. Banwariwal

40. Under the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008, Under Section 2(8), which of the following is not included in definition of ‘Body corporate’?

(1) Company Under Section 2(20), Company Act, 2013.

(2) A Company incorporated outside India.

(3) A Corporation Sole.

(4) A Limited Liability Partnership incorporated outside India.

41. ‘A’ purchase a horse from ‘B’. ‘A’ needs the horse for riding but he does not mention this to ‘B’. The horse is not suitable for riding but is suitable only for being driven in a carriage. ‘A’ can

A. ‘A’ can return the horse under implied conditions as to quality or purpose under Section 16 of the sale of Goods Act.

B. ‘A’ can neither reject the horse nor can he claim any compensation from B.

C. The situation is covered under the rule contained in the maxim caveat emptor.

D. The situation is covered under exception mentioned under 16(1) dealing with implied conditions of the fitness of the goods for any particular purpose.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A and B only

(2) B and C only

(3) A and C only

(4) A and D only

42. Following Marks are allowed to be registered under the Trademark Act, 1989 in India

Following Marks are allowed to be registered under the Trademark Act, 1989 in India

A. The shape of a light bulb, where the shape functions to make the bulb more energy efficient

B. The term ‘Icy Freeze’ for the Ice Cream

C. The term ‘Semiclo’ for food processor

D. The term ‘Matokla’ for coffee

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A and B only

(2) B and C only

(3) C and D only

(4) A and D only

43. Which one of the following cases distinguish between an offer and invitation to receive offers?

(1) Balfour v. Balfour (1919)

(2) Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt (1913)

(3) Harvey v. Facey, (1893)

(4) Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co., (1893)

44. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the impact of dissolution of House of people on Business pending in house?

A. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses as per Article 107(5)

B. A contempt proceedings pending in House lapses

C. A Bill passed in the Lok Sabha but pending in Rajya Sabha does not lapse as per Article 107(5)

D. A Bill pending in Rajya Sabha which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse

E. A Bill passed by both houses but pending assent by the president does not lapse.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B and D only

(2) B, C and D only

(3) A, D and E only

(4) A, B and E only

45. Consider the following statement, relating to the State parties to ICCPR under Article 13(2), of ICCPR, 1996:

A. Primary education shall be optional and free for all.

B. Secondary education in its different form shall be made generally available and accessible to all.

C. Fundamental education shall be encouraged or intensified for those who have not received or completed the whole period of primary education.

D. The material conditions of teaching staff shall be continuously improve.

E. Right to education shall promote scientific progress, fellowship and affirmative action programme.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) A and B only

(2) A, B and D only

(3) B, C and D only

(4) B, C, D and E only

46. The System of ‘Droit Administrative’ evolved in which of the following jurisdiction?

(1) England

(2) France

(3) USA

(4) Germany

47. Arrange the following Treaties/Convention in Chronological Order:

A. Trade mark Law Treaty

B. Brussels (Satellite) Convention

C. Budapest Treaty

D. Rome Convention

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B, C, D

(2) B, C, D, A

(3) B, A, D, C

(4) D, B, C, A

48. Match List I with List II

LIST I (General Exception)

A. Act of a Child under Seven years of age

B. Act likely to cause harm done without criminal intention to prevent other harm

C. Mistake of fact

D. Act of a person incapable of judgement by reason of intoxication against his will.

LIST II (Section of IPC)

I. Section 76 of IPC

II. Section 85 of IPC

III. Section 82 of IPC

IV. Section 81 of IPC

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

(4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

49. Which of the following are attributable to Judicial theory of Legal Right?

A. A right is an interest defined of the former will.

B. A right is based on sovereign power of the State.

C. A subjective right is more metaphysical abstraction.

D. A legal right is legally protected interest.

E. The main object of law is protection of human interest and to avert a conflict between their individual interest.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) A and C only

(2) B, C and D only

(3) D and E only

(4) C and E only

50. In which of the following case the Supreme Court went on to hold that the “width of power test” or direct impact and effect test” should be used to see, if a constitutional amendment violates the basic structure of the Constitution?

(1) Kesavanand Bharti v. State of Kerala (1973)

(2) Ashok Thakur v. UOI (2005)

(3) In re Presidential reference Case (1999)

(4) Supreme Court Advocate on Record Association v. UOI (2016)

51. With regard to defamation which of the following is not correct.

(1) Under English Criminal Law, only libel has been recognized as offence.

(2) Under English law of torts, slander is actionable per se.

(3) In India, Criminal law does not make any distinction between libel and slander.

(4) Libel is addressed to the eye, slander to the ear.

52. Match List I with List II

LIST I (Name of the case)

A. Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt

B. Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.

C. Hadley v. Baxendale

D. Phillips v. Brooks

LIST II (Subject Matter)

I. Section 30, Wagering Agreement

II. Section 20, Mistakes of Fact

III. Section 4, Communication when complete

IV. Section 73, Breach of Contract

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

(2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

53. Which of the following provision of Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 empower the state government to designate any area within the State as water pollution control area after consultation or on recommendation of the State Board?

(1) Section 18

(2) Section 19

(3) Section 20

(4) Section 21

54. Consider the following statement relating to power of General Assembly under the United Nations Charter?

A. The resolution or declaration of the General Assembly are not binding upon the States.

B. Under Article 2(7) of the United Nations Charter, the General Assembly may intervene in matters which are essentially within domestic jurisdiction of States.

C. The General Assembly may make recommendations for promoting international cooperation in the political field.

D. The General Assembly may make recommendation for progressive development of international Law and its codification.

E. The General Assembly may recommend to promote International cooperation in the economic, social, cultural, education and health field etc.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B and C only

(2) B, C and D only

(3) A, C, D and E only

(4) A, C and D only

55. Which one of the following is not a ground for opposition proceedings to grant of patent, under patent Act, 1970.

(1) That the invention so far as claimed in any claim of the complete specification has been published before the priority date of the claim.

(2) That the complete specification does not disclose, the source of geographical origin of biological material used for the invention.

(3) That the subject of any claim of the complete specification is not an invention within the meaning of the Patent Act, 1970

(4) That the applicant for the patent wrongfully obtained the invention.

56. Arrange the following decision of ICJ under contentious jurisdiction in their ascending order:

A. Anglo-Norwegian Fisheries Case

B. The Corfu Channel Case

C. The Asylum (Colombia v. Peru) Case

D. Minquiers and Ecrehes (France v. UK) Case

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) B, C, A, D

(2) C, B, A, D

(3) B, A, C, D

(4) D, B, C, A

57. “You must take reasonable care to avoid acts or omission which you can reasonably forsee would be likely to injure your neighbour” The above statement is attributed to which one of the following?

(1) Lord Derby in Campbell v. Paddington

(2) Blackburn J. in Rylands v. Fletcher

(3) Lord Macmillan in Heaven v. Pender

(4) Lord Atkin in Donoghue v. Stevenson

58. According to Hohfeld’s concept of ‘right’ and its legal co-relatives, which of the following statements are correct?

A. The co-relative of Liberty is No-Right

B. the co-relative of Immunity is Power.

C. the co-relative of Disability is Immunity

D. the co-relative of Power is Liability

E. the Contradictories Immunity is absence of power in another.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, C, D and E only

(2) A, B and E only

(3) B, C and D only

(4) A, D and E only

59. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 was enacted by the Parliament under which of the following provision?

(1) Article 252(1) of the Constitution.

(2) Article 253 of the Constitution.

(3) Environment Protection Act, 1986.

(4) Article 249 of the Constitution.

60. Match List I with List II

LIST I

A. Right against Public Hanging

B. Right against Delayed Execution

C. Right against Bar Fetters

D. Right against Solitary Confinement

LIST II

I. Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration

II. Charles Gurumukh Sobhraj v. Delhi Administration

III. Attorney General of India v. Lakhma Devi

IV. T. V. Vatheeswaran v. State of Tamil Nadu

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

(4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

61. Match List I with List II

LIST I (Name of Legislation)

A. The Wakf Act

B. The Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act

C. The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act

D. The Family Court Act

LIST II (Year of Enactment)

I. 1956

II. 1986

III. 1984

IV. 1995

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

62. In times of Emergency, Parliament may vote a lump sum without allocating it to any particular object, these demand grants by article with equal details under Article 116(1)(b) of the Constitution is called which of the following?

(1) Exceptional Grant

(2) Votes of Credit

(3) Vote on Account

(4) Supplementary Grants

63. Which one of the following option is valid under Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956?

(1) ‘Anil’, a Hindu male adopted ‘Sunny’, aged 10 years in 1986. ‘Sunil’, a son was born to his wife in 1987. Anil cancelled the adoption of ‘Sunny’ in 1988 and informed him that he is no more to be known as his son.

(2) Albert, a citizen of U.S.A. adopts, an abandoned child who is being brought up in an orphanage in India.

(3) Kamini, a Hindu widow aged 23 years adopts her brother’s daughter aged 2 ½ years.

(4) Kamla, was living separately from her husband from last 6 years, and she adopted a girl aged 3 years.

64. Consider the following statement relating to Uniform Civil Code under the Constitution of India.

A. Article 44 mandate State of secure for all persons, a Uniform Civil Code.

B. Article 44 mandate State to secure for the citizen of India, a Uniform Civil Code throughout India.

C. In Indian Divorce Shah Bano case highlights, the Court ruled that Muslim husband is liable to pay maintenance to the divorced wife upto iddat period.

D. In Daniel Latifi v. UOI, the Court ruled that Muslim husband is liable to make provision for the future of wife even after iddat period.

E. In Sarla Mudgal v. UOI, the Court said that Article 44 is based on a concept that there is no necessary relation between religion and personal Law in civilized society.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, D and E only

(2) B, D and E only

(3) B, C, D and E only

(4) A, C, D and E only

65. Match List I with List II

LIST I (Legal Maxim)

A. Uberrima Fides

B. Innuendo

C. Quantum Merit

D. Bona Vacantia

LIST II (Meaning)

I. Double meaning defamatory word

II. Reasonable sum of the money

III. Goods without an owner

IV. Utmost good faith

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

(2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

66. Match List I with List II

LIST I

A. Brown v. Board of Education

B. Plessy v. Ferguson

C. Reynolds v. Sims

D. Miranda v. Arizona

LIST II

I. One Man One Vote

II. Right of Accused during interrogation

III. Equal but not separation

IV. Separate but equal

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

(2) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-I

(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

67. Arrange the following cases of the Supreme Court on Sentence of Death in their ascending order:

A. Rajendra Prasad v. State of U.P

B. Machhi Singh v. State of Punjab

C. Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab

D. Jagmohan Singh v. State of U.P

E. Mohinder Singh v. State of Punjab

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) D, C, B, A, E

(2) A, C, D, E, B

(3) A, D, B, C, E

(4) D, A, C, B, E

68. Match List I with List II

LIST I

A. In re Kerala Education Bill

B. In re Keshav Singh

C. In re Presidential Reference (1999)

D. In re Special Reference No. 1 of 2002

LIST II

I. Legislative Privilege

II. Governor Power of Reserve Bill

III. Election Matter

IV. Appointment of Judges

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

69. The Doctrine of Social Solidarity was postulated by which of the following jurist?

(1) Eugen Ehrlich

(2) Rudolph Von Ihering

(3) Leon Duguit

(4) Herbert Spencer

70. Consider the following combination of and choose the correct combination:

Provision of UDHR — Part III, Indian Constitution

A. Prohibition of Slavery, Slave trade etc. Article 4 – Article 24

B. Right against arbitrary arrest and detention, Article 9 – Article 22

C. Right to freedom of Movement, Article 13(1) – Article 19 (1)(d)

D. Right to life, liberty and security of person Article 3 – Article 21

E. Right to Effective Remedy Article 11 – Article 32

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B, C and E only

(2) B, C and D only

(3) A, C and D only

(4) A, B, D and E only

71. In which of the following case Marshall C. J. of USA Supreme Court remarked that, “The Constitution we are expounding is intended to endure for ages to come and consequently, to be adapted to the various crises of human affairs.”

(1) Mcculoch v. Maryland

(2) Marbury v. Madison

(3) Dr. Bonham’s Case

(4) None of the above

72. Consider the following statement relating to import and export of Hazardous Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1989:

A. Import and Export of hazardous waste not permissible under Rule 11.

B. Import and Export of hazardous waste permissible for recycling and reuse.

C. An occupier importing and exporting hazardous waste has to provide information in Form 5A.

D. An occupier importing and exporting hazardous waste shall comply with Basel Convention.

E. The Ministry of Environment and Forest is nodal Ministry to deal with trans-boundary movement of hazardous waste.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) A, C and D only

(2) A, C, D and E only

(3) A, B, D and E only

(4) B, C and E only

73. Arrange the following advisory opinion of the Supreme Court under Article 143(1) in their ascending order:

A. In re the Sea Custom Act

B. In re Special Court Bill

C. In re Keshav Singh

D. In re Berubari Union and Exchange of Enclaves

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) D, A, C, B

(2) A, D, C, B

(3) D, B, A, C

(4) A, C, D, B

74. The Constitutive Theory of State recognition has been advocated by which of the following jurist?

(1) Oppenheim, Anzilotti and Holland.

(2) Oppenheim, Anzilotti and Hall.

(3) Anzilotti, Hall and Fisher.

(4) Hall, Fisher and Brierly.

75. Arrange the following chapter of the Companies Act, 2013 in their ascending order:

A. Share Capital and Debentures

B. Prospectus and Allotment of Securities

C. Audit and Auditors

D. Appointment and Qualification of Directors

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) B, A, D, C

(2) A, B, D, C

(3) D, B, A, C

(4) B, A, C, D

76. The UN Conference on Human Environment held at Stockholm in 1972 incorporates “Assimilative Capacity Principle” under which of the following Principle?

(1) Principle 6

(2) Principle 9

(3) Principle 13

(4) Principle 14

77. Arrange the following landmark decision of the Supreme Court in matter relating to different aspects of Environment in their ascending order:

A. A.P. Pollution Control Board v. M. V. Nayudu

B. Church of God (Full Gospel) in India v. KKR Majestic Colony Welfare Association

C. Vellore Citizen Welfare Forum v. UOI

D. S. Jagannath v. UOI

E. UP Pollution Control Board v. Modi Distillery

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) E, A, D, C, B

(2) C, D, A, B, E

(3) E, C, D, A, B

(4) B, A, C, D, E

78. Match List I with List II

LIST I

A. The Genocide Convention

B. Convention on Crime of Apartheid

C. Convention against Torture

D. Convention on Political Rights of Women

LIST II

I. 1953

II. 1948

III. 1984

IV. 1973

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

(2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

79. Match List I with List II

LIST I

A. R. v. Riley

B. South Staffordshire Waterworks Co. v. Sharman

C. Cartwright v. Green

D. Armory v. Delamirie

LIST II

I. Gold Ring Case

II. Lamb Case

III. Chimney Cleaner’s Case

IV. Desk Repairing Case

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

80. Which of the following is not a negotiable instrument?

(1) Promissory Note.

(2) Bill of Exchange.

(3) A Cheque.

(4) Fixed Deposit Receipt.

81. Hari Prasad died by a sudden heart attack without making any will. Arrange the following as per the class of heirs who would inherit his property as per the rule of succession

A. Brother

B. Sister’s Son

C. Son of a pre-deceased Son

D. Father

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) D, A, C, B

(2) C, D, A, B

(3) A, D, C, B

(4) D, C, A, B

82. Arrange the following landmark decision in their ascending order relating to development of law of torts under concept of nervous shock.

A. R. v. Phillips

B. Dulieu v. White

C. Hambrook v. Stokes Brothers

D. Bourhill v. Young

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) B, C, D, A

(2) B, D, C, A

(3) A, C, D, B

(4) D, B, C, A

83. Arrange in ascending order, the sequence of devolution of property Under Section 8 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 in case of a male Hindu dying intestate?

A. Upon the heirs being the relatives specified in class I of the schedule.

B. If there is no heirs of class I, then upon the heirs of class II of the schedule.

C. If there is no agnate, then upon the cognates of the deceased.

D. Lastly in no heirs in class I and II then upon the agnates of the deceased.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B, D, C

(2) B, A, C, D

(3) A, B, C, D

(4) A, C, B, D

84. Which of the following is not a ground for issuance of Writ of Prohibition?

(1) Violation of the Principle of Natural Justice.

(2) Infringement of fundamental rights.

(3) An error of law apparent on the face of the record.

(4) Fraud.

85. The ‘Precautionary Principle and Polluter Pays Principle’ are a part of Customary International Law and part of Indian domestic law was held down by the Supreme Court in which of the following case?

(1) Kinkari Devi v. State (1987)

(2) Indian Council for Envrio-Legal Action v. UOI (1996)

(3) Vellore Citizen Welfare Forum v. UOI (1996)

(4) Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra v. State of UP (1985)

86. Which of the following jurist denies international law, the legal character and calls it as the “Vanishing point of Jurisprudence”?

(1) Pufendorf

(2) Bentham and Hobbes

(3) Sir Thomas Holland

(4) Hart and Brierly

87. Which of the following notes are considered to be the “Promissory Note” under the Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881?

A. I promise to pay ₹ 500/- seven days after my marriage to C.

B. I promise to pay B or order ₹500/-.

C. I promise to pay B ₹500/- first deducting thereout any money which he may owe me.

D. I acknowledge myself to be indebted to B in ₹1000/- to be paid on demand, for value received.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A and C only

(2) A and B only

(3) B and D only

(4) C and D only

88. The constitution of Biodiversity Management Committees is provided under which section of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002?

(1) Section 41

(2) Section 51

(3) Section 52 A

(4) Section 53

89. Which one of the following jurist, defined International law as, “the body of rules and principles of action which are binding upon civilized States in their relations with one another”?

(1) Kelson

(2) Oppenheim

(3) Brierly

(4) Anzilotti

90. The modern doctrine of judicial review is ascribed to which of the following case?

(1) Dr. Borham’s Case

(2) Marbury v. Madison

(3) Gideon v. Wainwright

(4) Berger Congress v. The Supreme Court

Comprehension (91-95):

An academic question raised time and again is whether the Indian Constitution can be characterized as Federal. According to Wheare, the Constitution of India is ‘quasi-federal’ and not strictly federal. Jennings has characterized it as a “federation with strong centralizing tendency” Austin described it as “Co-operative federation”.

In West Bengal v. UOI, the Supreme Court projected the traditional view of federalism and characterized the Indian Constitution as not being true to any traditional pattern of federalism. On the other hand, Subba Rao, J. in his bid to bolster the position of the States against the centre, took to the extreme view of competitive and dual federalism which has long been discarded in older federation.

In State of Rajasthan v. UOI, Beg, CJ, said, the extent of federalism in it is largely watered down by the needs of progress and development of a country which has to nationally integrated, politically and economically coordinated and socially, intellectually and spiritually uplifted.

In S. R. Bommai v. UOI, Ahmadi J. described the Indian Constitution following K. C. Wheare as “quasi federal” because it is mixture of the federal and unitary elements, Learning more towards the latter, Sawant J. observed “Democracy and federalism are essential features of our Constitution and are part of basic structure”.

Justice Reddy, has observed, the fact that under the scheme of our Constitution greater power is conferred upon the centre vis-à-vis the States do not mean that States are mere appendages of the Centre. Within the sphere allotted to them, the State are supreme and the center cannot tamper with their power. More particularly the Court should not adopt an approach, an interpretation, which has the effect of or tends to have effect of whittling down the power reserved to the States.

Federalism in India is not a matter of administrative convince but are of the principle.

Accordingly, in Bommai case, the Supreme Court has developed a more balance approach to Article 356 of the Constitution.

91. Which of the following jurist has characterized the Indian Constitution as Federation with strong centralizing tendency?

(1) K. C. Wheare

(2) Nicholas

(3) Jennings

(4) Austin

92. The proper course for testing the strength of the ministry was holding the test on the floor of the house, except in cases where the holding of the floor test was considered not possible for reasons given in writing, was laid down by the Supreme Court in which of the following case:

(1) State of Rajasthan v. UOI

(2) S. R. Bommai v. UOI

(3) Rameshwar Prasad v. UOI

(4) State of West Bengal v. UOI

93. The subject matter with respect to which the Union Parliament and State Legislative shall have power to make law is provided the which of the following schedule of the Constitution?

(1) Fifth Schedule

(2) Sixth Schedule

(3) Seventh Schedule

(4) Twelve Schedule

94. The provisions of failure of Constitutional machinery of the States is provided the which of the following provision of the Constitution?

(1) Article 355

(2) Article 352

(3) Article 356

(4) Article 360

95. Which one of the following is not feature of Federal Constitution?

(1) Separation of Power

(2) Division of Power

(3) Written and Rigid Constitution

(4) Supremacy of the Court

Comprehension (96-100):

Until 2015, if you sang “Happy Birthday to you” to your child, you were a copyright infringer, at least that’s what Warner/Chappell Music Inc. would have had you believe. The music publishing company had been charging filmmakers and restaurants for the use of the song in movie scenes and birthday parties for decades. In his situation comedy Sports-Night, writer and producer Aaron Sorkin wrote an entire episode about one of the character getting a fictional television network in big legal trouble for singing “Happy Birthday to you” to another on the air. It turns out that song was in the “Public domain”, namely that collection of works and expressions that exist beyond the reach of copyright ownership and thus serve as a cultural “common” for all of humanity to use and reuse. No one had ever checked on the matter before about 2010.

People just took Warner/Chappell word that the company owned the copyright to the song. It had been earning up to $2 million per year from royalties on the song. In 2010 law professor Robert Brauneis published the results of an extensive investigation of the copyright status of the song and found that, among other technical problems with copyright claim, the song on copyright expired in 1982. As a result of the research by Brauneis, Warner/Chappell faces a lawsuit in an attempt to recover millions of dollars that people have paid to the company for permission to use the song. In 2015 a U.S. Federal court ruled that the song is in public domain, with the court ruling an important part of our culture has been restored to the commons. (250 words)

96. The owner in case of Musical Work is

(1) The producer of the musical work

(2) The composer of the musical work

(3) The singer of the musical work

(4) The lyricist of the musical work

97. In cases of offences of infringement of copyright the jurisdiction to try the offence vests with

(1) Commercial courts

(2) District Magistrate

(3) Metropolitan Magistrate of the Second Class

(4) Metropolitan Magistrate of the First Class

98. Which one of the following act constitutes infringement of the copyright

(1) The reading or recitation in public from a published literary or dramatic work for commercial purpose.

(2) The reproduction of any work for the purpose of a judicial proceedings or for the purpose of a report of a judicial proceedings.

(3) The reproduction of any work by a teacher or a pupil in the course of instruction.

(4) The making of a three dimensional object from a two-dimensional artistic work, for a purpose of industrial application.

99. The term of Copyright in published musical work under the Copyright Act, 1957 is?

(1) Copyright shall subsist until 60 years from the date of release of song.

(2) Copyright shall subsist until 25 years from the date of release of song.

(3) Copyright shall subsist until 60 years from the beginning of the calendar years next following the year in which author dies.

(4) Copyright shall subsist until 25 years from the beginning of the calendar years next following the year in which author dies.

100. What is the “Public Domain” in the context of copyright?

(1) Works that are owned by the public

(2) Works that are free to use without attribution

(3) Works for which copyright has expired or been waived

(4) Works that are published on the internet

Note: The answer keys provided are provisional. Once NTA releases the official answer keys, they will be updated here. For detailed information, visit the official UGC NET website.

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