Legal Bites presents the CLAT UG Mock Legal Practice Questions – May 2026, thoughtfully curated to refine your preparation strategy and strengthen your legal aptitude for the upcoming examination. In preparing this mock test, we have tried to closely follow the CLAT UG 2026 pattern while ensuring coverage of all subjects relevant to the CLAT UG syllabus. The paper is designed to test reading comprehension, critical reasoning, and the ability to apply concepts across passages drawn from law, current affairs, history, economics, and social issues—mirroring the demands of the actual CLAT UG exam. Candidates are advised to attempt the mock in a time-bound manner, evaluate their answers carefully, and use the results to identify strengths, address gaps, and improve overall exam strategy.
CLAT UG Mock Legal Practice Questions
May 2026
No of Questions: 120
CLAT UG Mock Legal Practice Questions
May 2026
No of Questions: 120
SECTION I
I. Mahatma Gandhi’s entry into journalism began during his stay in South Africa, where he witnessed the widespread racial discrimination and injustice faced by the Indian community. Determined to challenge these oppressive practices, he recognised the power of the press as an effective medium for spreading awareness and mobilising public opinion. In 1903, Gandhi founded Indian Opinion, a newspaper dedicated to highlighting the grievances of Indians in South Africa and advocating for their civil and political rights (Gandhi, 1986). Through his articles, he communicated his principles of truth, non-violence, and social justice while encouraging unity and collective action among the Indian community. For Gandhi, journalism was not merely a profession or a means of reporting events; it was a moral and social responsibility aimed at educating people, promoting ethical values, and inspiring peaceful resistance against injustice (Mason, 2018).
The establishment of Indian Opinion marked a turning point in Gandhi’s journalistic journey and demonstrated his belief in the transformative power of the media. The newspaper provided a platform to influence both local and international audiences by drawing attention to the discrimination faced by Indians in South Africa. Gandhi ensured that the publication adhered to the principles of truthful, ethical, and responsible journalism, giving voice to marginalised communities and encouraging informed public discourse (Gandhi, 1986). His experience with Indian Opinion shaped his understanding of journalism as an instrument of social reform rather than commercial gain. This philosophy later guided his journalistic endeavours in India, where he used newspapers as powerful tools to promote national awakening, advocate social justice, and strengthen the freedom movement.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from Sarvajith Kumar JN, The Role of Mahatma Gandhi in Shaping Modern Indian Journalism: His Contributions and Influence, International Journal of Research in Academic World, 2024, 3(2):133–137.]
1. In which country did Mahatma Gandhi begin his journey in journalism?
A. India
B. England
C. South Africa
D. Sri Lanka
Answer: C
2. Which newspaper was founded by Mahatma Gandhi in 1903?
A. Young India
B. Harijan
C. Indian Opinion
D. Navjivan
Answer: C
3. Gandhi considered journalism primarily as:
A. A profitable business
B. A means of entertainment
C. A political campaign strategy only
D. An instrument for social reform and public education
Answer: D
4. The passage suggests that Gandhi believed journalism should:
A. Prioritise sensational reporting
B. Serve society through ethical and truthful reporting
C. Focus on commercial success
D. Remain detached from social issues
Answer: B
5. Gandhi founded Indian Opinion in:
A. 1903
B. 1901
C. 1893
D. 1905
Answer: A
II. The concept of the Bronze Age originally referred to a period when copper or bronze served as the principal hard material for manufacturing tools and weapons. Early classical authors, whose works greatly influenced nineteenth-century historians, did not distinguish between copper and bronze, using a single term for both technological phases.
A significant shift occurred in 1881 when archaeologist John Evans argued that the widespread use of copper preceded the development of bronze. He proposed a separate Copper Age as a transitional phase before the Bronze Age. However, rather than expanding the traditional Stone–Bronze–Iron sequence into four distinct ages, Evans retained the established three-age framework and treated the Copper Age as an introductory transition.
Building upon Evans’ work, Gaetano Chierici introduced the Italian term “eneo-litica” in 1884 to describe this intermediate stage between the Stone Age and the Bronze Age. The term was intended to indicate a period of technological transition rather than an era in which stone and bronze were used exclusively together. Stone tools, in fact, continued to be used extensively throughout both the Copper and Bronze Ages.
English-speaking scholars initially adopted either “Copper Age” or “Eneolithic”, the latter being a translation of Chierici’s terminology. Over time, however, the word Eneolithic created confusion because many readers mistakenly interpreted it as e-Neolithic, implying something “outside” or separate from the Neolithic rather than a copper-using phase. To eliminate this ambiguity, archaeologists around the turn of the twentieth century increasingly preferred the term Chalcolithic.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from Abhilasha Jaiman, Chalcolithic Age, International Journal of Innovative Research in Science, Engineering and Technology (IJIRSET), Vol. 9, Issue 7, July 2020.]
6. The term “Bronze Age” originally referred to a period when:
A. Iron was the primary material for tools
B. Stone tools completely disappeared
C. Copper or bronze was the chief hard material for tools and weapons
D. Gold was widely used for making weapons
Answer: C
7. Who first recognised that the use of copper preceded the use of bronze and proposed a separate Copper Age?
A. Gordon Childe
B. John Evans
C. Gaetano Chierici
D. V. Gordonilde
Answer: B
8. According to John Evans, the Copper Age should be regarded as:
A. A separate fourth age after the Iron Age
B. A transitional phase before the Bronze Age
C. Part of the Iron Age
D. The earliest stage of the Stone Age
Answer: B
9. John Evans retained which traditional archaeological classification?
A. Stone–Copper–Bronze–Iron
B. Copper–Bronze–Iron
C. Stone–Iron–Bronze
D. Stone–Bronze–Iron
Answer: D
10. The Italian term “eneo-litica” was introduced by:
A. Gaetano Chierici
B. John Evans
C. Mortimer Wheeler
D. Robert Bruce Foote
Answer: A
III. Mithila became a knowledgeable center of learning during the Vedic era and this place of learning various subjects like Mathematics, Science, Social Science and Languages transformed into the university of Mithila. It was later on developed by Gangesa Upadhyay. It has been known as an important place for learning and cultures. Maithili language, considered the sweetest language in the world, is mainly spoken in this region in particular and in Bihar in general. Researchers used to come to this place to study about this language.
[Extracted from Bhavanari Satyanarayana, Poonam Kumar Sharma & Abul Basar, The Vedas as the Original Source of the Hindu Indian and Modern Mathematical Sciences: A Survey Article, Journal of Mathematical Problems, Equations and Statistics, 3(1), 2022, pp. 6–10]
11. During which period did Mithila emerge as a major centre of learning?
A. Mauryan Period
B. Gupta Period
C. Vedic Era
D. Mughal Period
Answer: C
12. According to the passage, Mithila developed into a university for the study of:
A. Only Philosophy and Religion
B. Mathematics, Science, Social Science, and Languages
C. Engineering and Medicine
D. Agriculture only
Answer: B
13. Who is credited with the later development of the University of Mithila?
A. Chanakya
B. Aryabhata
C. Gangesa Upadhyay
D. Panini
Answer: C
14. The passage describes Mithila as an important centre for:
A. Trade and Commerce
B. Learning and Culture
C. Military Training
D. Agriculture
Answer: B
15. Which language is primarily spoken in the Mithila region?
A. Maithili
B. Sanskrit
C. Bhojpuri
D. Magahi
Answer: A
IV. Eradicating dowry in India requires a comprehensive approach that addresses its social, cultural, and legal foundations. Since the practice is closely linked to gender inequality and traditional norms, coordinated efforts are essential for lasting change.
Public awareness campaigns should educate people about the harmful consequences of dowry while promoting gender equality and respect for women’s rights. Educational institutions can also contribute by incorporating gender-sensitive values into their curriculum.
The effective implementation of anti-dowry laws is equally important. Strict enforcement, prompt investigation, and timely punishment of offenders can help deter dowry-related offences and ensure justice for victims.
Women facing dowry-related harassment or violence should have access to shelters, legal aid, counselling, medical assistance, and rehabilitation services to support their recovery and independence.
Finally, society should encourage dowry-free marriages and involve community and religious leaders in spreading awareness and challenging social norms that perpetuate the practice. Collective efforts from the government, civil society, and local communities are essential to eliminate dowry and promote a more equal society.
[Extracted with edits from Jyoti Ashok Singh, “Dowry & Dowry Death: In India,” International Journal of Law Management & Humanities, Vol. 6, Issue 1, pp. 117–123.]
16. The demand for dowry generally reflects:
A. Gender equality
B. Women’s empowerment
C. Gender discrimination
D. Economic liberalization
Answer: C
17. Which social factor contributes significantly to the continuation of dowry?
A. Scientific advancement
B. Patriarchal mindset
C. Urbanisation
D. Digital literacy
Answer: B
18. The most effective way to eliminate dowry is:
A. Legal action alone
B. Social reform alone
C. A combination of legal enforcement, education, and social change
D. Increasing marriage expenses
Answer: C
19. Dowry-related harassment often results in:
A. Women’s empowerment
B. Domestic violence
C. Improved family relations
D. Better financial planning
Answer: B
20. The demand for dowry is often justified on the basis of:
A. Social customs and traditions
B. Merit
C. Constitutional principles
D. International law
Answer: A
V. Journalism education emerged as a recognised academic discipline during the late nineteenth century, when the rapid expansion of newspapers and the growing importance of investigative reporting created a demand for professionally trained journalists. Universities began introducing specialised programmes to equip aspiring reporters with both practical skills and theoretical knowledge. Institutions such as Columbia University in New York played a pioneering role by establishing formal journalism education, combining newsroom practices with academic instruction. These early programmes reflected an increasing recognition of journalism as a profession vital to democracy, public accountability, and informed citizenship. They also laid the foundation for future debates on how journalism education should prepare students for the realities of an evolving media environment.
The twentieth century witnessed significant developments in journalism education as changes in society and technology reshaped the profession. The emergence of mass communication theories encouraged a broader understanding of the social, political, and cultural impact of the media, shifting journalism education beyond technical reporting skills to include critical analysis. At the same time, the advent of radio and television expanded the curriculum to cover broadcast journalism and multimedia storytelling. Journalism schools also placed greater emphasis on professional ethics, media law, accuracy, fairness, and accountability, recognising that technological progress must be accompanied by responsible reporting. These changes aimed to prepare graduates to navigate an increasingly complex and competitive media landscape.
In the contemporary era, journalism education continues to evolve in response to rapid digital transformation. The widespread use of the internet, social media, mobile journalism, and artificial intelligence has fundamentally changed the way news is produced, distributed, and consumed. Modern journalism programmes now include training in digital storytelling, data journalism, multimedia production, audience engagement, and verification techniques. At the same time, the rise of misinformation, disinformation, and deepfakes has reinforced the importance of fact-checking, media literacy, and ethical reporting. As journalism adapts to technological innovation and changing audience expectations, journalism education remains committed to producing professionals who possess not only technical competence but also integrity, critical thinking, and a strong commitment to serving the public interest.
[Extracted with edits from Srinivasan Gopal Chari, From Classroom to Byline: The Role of Journalism Education in Writing and Publishing Success, IJCRT, Vol. 12, Issue 10, October 2024]
21. Journalism education emerged as a recognised academic discipline primarily during the:
A. Eighteenth century
B. Early nineteenth century
C. Late nineteenth century
D. Twenty-first century
Answer: C
22. The rapid expansion of which medium created the need for formal journalism education?
A. Television
B. Internet
C. Radio
D. Newspapers
Answer: D
23. Which university is recognised as a pioneer in formal journalism education?
A. Harvard University
B. Oxford University
C. Columbia University
D. Stanford University
Answer: C
24. Journalism schools increasingly emphasised all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Ethics
B. Media law
C. Accuracy
D. Political propaganda
Answer: D
SECTION II
VI. Expressing serious concern over the filing of the review petition, a bench of Justices B V Nagarathna and Ujjal Bhuyan said AIIMS was challenging the Supreme Court’s order instead of complying with it.
“It is strange that the review petitioner-All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) is not inclined to obey the order of the Supreme Court and instead, is assailing the order of this court, in order to defeat the constitutional rights of the minor daughter of the appellant herein,” the bench said while dismissing the review plea.
Following the rejection of the review petition, a curative petition has been filed challenging the order. The plea is likely to be mentioned for urgent hearing on Thursday before a bench led by Chief Justice of India Surya Kant.
A contempt petition has also been filed in the same matter in the apex court. On April 24, the Supreme Court had allowed the minor girl to terminate her 28-week pregnancy, observing that forcing a woman, especially a minor, to continue an unwanted pregnancy would violate her right to live with dignity and reproductive autonomy.
[Extracted from the newspaper, The New Indian Express, April 29, 2026]
25. Before whom is the curative petition likely to be mentioned for urgent hearing?
A. Justice B V Nagarathna
B. Justice Ujjal Bhuyan
C. A bench led by the Chief Justice of India Surya Kant
D. A Constitution Bench of five judges
Answer: C
26. Apart from the curative petition, what other proceeding has been initiated?
A. Criminal Appeal
B. Contempt Petition
C. Public Interest Litigation
D. Transfer Petition
Answer: B
27. The Supreme Court held that compelling the minor to continue the pregnancy would violate:
A. Only the Right to Privacy
B. Only the Right to Equality
C. Only the right to education
D. The right to live with dignity and reproductive autonomy
Answer: D
28. The pregnancy involved in the case had reached:
A. 20 weeks
B. 22 weeks
C. 24 weeks
D. 28 weeks
Answer: D
29. Why did the Supreme Court express serious concern regarding AIIMS?
A. It failed to appear before the Court.
B. It challenged the Court’s order instead of complying with it.
C. It delayed filing the review petition.
D. It refused to submit medical records.
Answer: B
VII. Madras high court has observed that it is deeply disturbing to note that the state appears to be appointing govt pleaders/public prosecutors/law officers not on merit, but on the basis of their proximity and allegiance to the ruling dispensation. Justice B Pugalendhi observed that such appointments, at times, extended even to individuals whose only apparent qualification was their involvement in menial political activities like affixing posters during elections. The court said many such appointees lacked the requisite competence. The judge observed that considering the manner in which cases were defended by political appointments, the first bench of the court had earlier issued directions to the state govt to formulate or frame definite guidelines for the manner and criteria for the selection of advocates to the post of govt law officers. It had directed appointment of law officers on the basis of merit. “However, the secretaries to the govt, who are involved in the selection process of the law officers, are sailing along with the govt by not identifying the right persons,” the judge said.
[Extracted from the newspaper, Times of India, April 03, 2026]
30. What was the principal concern expressed by the Madras High Court?
A. Government Law Officers were underpaid.
B. Law Officers were being appointed primarily on political allegiance rather than merit.
C. The number of Law Officers was inadequate.
D. Government Law Officers were overburdened with work.
Answer: B
31. What had the First Bench previously directed the State Government to do?
A. Increase the number of Public Prosecutors.
B. Conduct written examinations for Law Officers.
C. Frame definite guidelines for the selection of Government Law Officers.
D. Privatise legal representation for the Government.
Answer: C
32. The Court emphasised that appointments of Government Law Officers should be based on:
A. Political loyalty.
B. Merit.
C. Seniority alone.
D. Electoral performance.
Answer: B
33. Which of the following was cited by the Court as an example of an insufficient qualification for appointment?
A. Conducting legal aid camps.
B. Teaching law in universities.
C. Affixing election posters during political campaigns.
D. Appearing in constitutional cases.
Answer: C
34. Which of the following is NOT a function of a Public Prosecutor?
A. Presenting evidence before the court.
B. Examining and cross-examining witnesses.
C. Assisting the court during criminal proceedings.
D. Pronouncing the final judgment in a criminal case.
Answer: D
VIII. The seventh edition of the India-Uzbekistan joint military exercise DUSTLIK 2026 is being conducted at the Gurumsaray Field Training Area at Namangan in Uzbekistan. The Ministry of Defence said that the exercise is aimed at enhancing interoperability and joint operational capability in semi-mountainous terrain, with a focus on special arms skills and special operations against unlawful armed groups. The Ministry said, during the exercise, troops of both contingents have undertaken area familiarisation, techniques and procedures; ambidextrous pistol firing; UAV application and operational readiness, among other activities.
The Defence Ministry said that in the coming days, the exercise is expected to advance to more complex joint missions in semi-mountainous terrain. The Ministry said that the exercise will further deepen the coordination and interoperability between the Indian Army and the Uzbekistan Army. The exercise will conclude on the 25th of April.
[Extracted from News on Air, 7th edition of India-Uzbekistan joint military exercise DUSTLIK 2026 being conducted at Gurumsaray Field Training Area, April 20, 2026]
35. The seventh edition of the India-Uzbekistan joint military exercise DUSTLIK 2026 is being conducted in:
A. India
B. Kazakhstan
C. Uzbekistan
D. Kyrgyzstan
Answer: C
36. Exercise DUSTLIK 2026 is being held at:
A. Tashkent Military Base
B. Gurumsaray Field Training Area, Namangan
C. Samarkand Training Centre
D. Fergana Valley Camp
Answer: B
37. The primary objective of Exercise DUSTLIK 2026 is to:
A. Conduct naval warfare drills
B. Enhance interoperability and joint operational capability
C. Test ballistic missile systems
D. Train peacekeeping forces under the UN
Answer: B
38. The exercise primarily focuses on operations in:
A. Desert terrain
B. Urban terrain
C. Semi-mountainous terrain
D. Coastal terrain
Answer: C
39. Which of the following activities was undertaken during the exercise?
1. Area familiarisation
2. Ambidextrous pistol firing
3. UAV application and operational readiness
Select the correct answer:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
40. Which Ministry released the information regarding Exercise DUSTLIK 2026?
A. Ministry of External Affairs
B. Ministry of Home Affairs
C. Ministry of Defence
D. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
Answer: C
IX. Lok Sabha Speaker Shri Om Birla emphasised the need to further enhance women’s participation in the legislative process. He noted that Indian women are excelling across diverse sectors—including business, education, and science—and their representation in policymaking and lawmaking should grow in proportion to their contributions. Referring to the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, Shri Birla observed that greater participation of women would bring greater sensitivity to governance, making policymaking more people-centric and better aligned with societal needs. He added that women are already playing leadership roles across sectors and are contributing a fresh and constructive perspective to governance and development.
Highlighting the role of emerging technologies such as Artificial Intelligence in strengthening public communication, Shri Birla observed that these advancements are enabling greater citizen engagement in the democratic process. He underlined that increased public participation leads to more meaningful and effective policymaking. At the same time, he cautioned that technology should not be used in ways that waste the valuable time of young people, but rather serve as a tool to enhance their skills and capacities.
[Excerpts from the Press Information Bureau (PIB), “Greater Participation of Women Would Bring Greater Sensitivity to Governance, Making Policymaking More People-Centric: Lok Sabha Speaker”, Government of India, 10 April 2026]
41. According to the passage, why did Shri Om Birla advocate for greater participation of women in the legislative process?
A. To increase the number of elected representatives in Parliament
B. Because women’s participation would make governance more sensitive and policymaking more people-centric
C. To promote reservation in local self-government institutions only
D. Because women constitute a majority of the electorate
Answer: B
42. Which of the following sectors are specifically mentioned in the passage as areas where Indian women are excelling?
A. Agriculture, defence and sports
B. Judiciary, media and engineering
C. Banking, healthcare and tourism
D. Business, education and science
Answer: D
43. The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam primarily seeks to:
A. Enhance women’s representation in legislative bodies
B. Provide financial assistance to women entrepreneurs
C. Increase women’s participation in the armed forces
D. Promote women’s education through scholarships
Answer: A
44. What, according to Shri Om Birla, is the result of increased public participation?
A. Higher voter turnout only
B. Reduced use of technology in governance
C. More meaningful and effective policymaking
D. Greater judicial intervention in governance
Answer: C
45. The term “citizen engagement” in the passage most nearly refers to:
A. Citizens contesting elections only
B. Active involvement of people in democratic processes and governance
C. Government officials interacting among themselves
D. Political parties conducting election campaigns
Answer: B
46. Shri Om Birla cautioned that technology should:
A. Be banned in educational institutions
B. Be used only by government agencies
C. Replace traditional methods of governance entirely
D. Not waste the valuable time of young people but help enhance their skills and capacities
Answer: D
X. The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), India has taken suo motu cognizance of a media report regarding the tragic death of four children due to drowning in a deep pit near an under construction drain in the Islampura area of Nanded district, Maharashtra, on 16th April 2026.
Reportedly, the drain was being constructed by the local civic body, and wastewater had accumulated in a nearby pit measuring approximately 15 feet in depth. The children, who were playing near the site, are said to have entered the water without anticipating its depth, leading to the unfortunate incident.
The Commission has observed that the contents of the news report, if true, raise a serious issue of violation of the human rights of the victims. Accordingly, it has issued notices to the Commissioner, Nanded Waghala City Municipal Corporation, the District Magistrate, and the Superintendent of Police, Nanded, Maharashtra.
The authorities have been directed to submit a detailed report on the matter within two weeks. The report is expected to include, among other things, the status of health of any affected individuals and details regarding compensation, if any, provided to the next of kin of the deceased children.
As per the media report dated 17th April 2026, local residents and police personnel rushed to the site upon hearing cries for help and attempted rescue operations. However, despite their efforts, the children could not be saved.
The Commission will further examine the matter upon receipt of the reports from the concerned authorities.
[Extracted from Press Information Bureau, NHRC Press Release (24 April 2026)]
47. The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) took suo motu cognizance of the incident based on:
A. A complaint filed by the victims’ families
B. A recommendation of the Supreme Court
C. A media report
D. A police FIR
Answer: C
48. The tragic incident occurred in which district of Maharashtra?
A. Nagpur
B. Nanded
C. Nashik
D. Pune
Answer: B
49. How many children reportedly died in the drowning incident?
A. Four
B. Three
C. Two
D. Five
Answer: A
50. The children drowned in:
A. A river
B. A lake
C. A village pond
D. A 15-feet-deep pit filled with accumulated wastewater
Answer: D
51. The NHRC has sought a detailed report within:
A. One week
B. Two weeks
C. One month
D. Forty-five days
Answer: B
52. Who reportedly attempted to rescue the children after hearing their cries?
A. Local residents and the police
A. Fire brigade only
C. Army personnel
D. National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) only
Answer: A
SECTION III
XI. The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026 proposes amendments in 79 Central Acts administered by 23 Ministries, covering 784 provisions across multiple sectors.
It removes criminal penalties for minor procedural lapses and replaces them with civil penalties or administrative mechanisms. The Bill also introduces amendments aimed at improving ease of living, including reforms under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 and the New Delhi Municipal Council Act, 1994.
It reduces compliance burden for MSMEs and businesses by introducing graded enforcement such as advisory notices and warnings before penalties.
For many years, several laws in India treated even small procedural mistakes as criminal offences. A missed filing deadline, a wrongly filled form, or a minor paperwork error could sometimes expose citizens and businesses to criminal penalties, including the possibility of imprisonment. Many of these provisions came from older regulatory systems. Recognising the need to make laws more balanced and practical, the Government began a process of reviewing such provisions. An important step in this direction was the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023, which removed criminal penalties for a number of minor offences across several Central laws.
The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026 continues this reform effort. It seeks to further reduce the criminalisation of minor violations and replace them with more proportionate civil penalties and administrative mechanisms.
[Extracted from Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026 – “Simplifying Laws, Strengthening Trust”]
53. The primary objective of the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026 is to:
A. Introduce stricter criminal penalties for regulatory violations
B. Replace minor procedural offences with civil penalties and administrative mechanisms
C. Abolish all criminal laws in India
D. Transfer legislative powers to State Governments
Answer: B
54. The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026 proposes amendments to how many Central Acts?
A. 50
B. 67
C. 79
D. 102
Answer: C
55. The Bill is administered across how many Ministries?
A. 18
B. 20
C. 28
D. 23
Answer: D
56. The Bill proposes amendments covering approximately:
A. 500 provisions
B. 600 provisions
C. 784 provisions
D. 1,000 provisions
Answer: C
57. Which of the following Acts is specifically proposed to be amended under the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026?
A. Representation of the People Act, 1951
B. Motor Vehicles Act, 1988
C. Right to Information Act, 2005
D. Indian Forest Act, 1927
Answer: B
58. The Bill seeks to reduce compliance burden primarily for:
A. Farmers and labourers only
B. Large multinational corporations only
C. Public sector undertakings only
D. MSMEs and businesses
Answer: D
XII. The Irish Constitution incorporates the Directive Principles of Social Policy under Article 45, which serve as guidelines for the Oireachtas (Irish Parliament) in formulating laws and policies. These principles are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced by courts. India adopted this concept from Ireland, and similarly, the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) under Part IV (Articles 36–51) of the Indian Constitution are also non-justiciable. This enables the legislature to implement social and economic welfare measures without judicial interference, while respecting the doctrine of separation of powers.
Unlike Ireland, where the principles are mainly contained in Article 45, India’s DPSPs are spread across Articles 36–51 and cover a broader range of objectives, including education, welfare of weaker sections, village panchayats, equal pay, maternity relief, environmental protection, preservation of monuments, and the promotion of a Uniform Civil Code.
[Extracted from Aniket Jadhav, Directive Principles: A Comparative Study of Irish and Spanish Constitution with that of India, International Journal of Law Management & Humanities, Vol. 6, Issue 3 (2023)]
59. India borrowed the concept of Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) from:
A. United Kingdom
B. Ireland
C. United States
D. Canada
Answer: B
60. In Ireland, the Directive Principles of Social Policy are primarily contained in:
A. Article 32
B. Article 50
C. Article 45
D. Article 51
Answer: C
61. The Directive Principles in Ireland are meant to guide:
A. The Judiciary
B. The President
C. The Oireachtas (Irish Parliament)
D. Local Governments
Answer: C
62. The term “non-justiciable” means:
A. They can be amended only by Parliament.
B. They cannot be enforced by courts.
C. They override Fundamental Rights.
D. They apply only during emergencies.
Answer: B
63. In India, the Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in:
A. Part III (Articles 12–35)
B. Part V (Articles 52–78)
C. Part IVA (Article 51A)
D. Part IV (Articles 36–51)
Answer: D
64. Compared to Ireland, India’s DPSPs:
A. Are confined to a single constitutional article.
B. Apply only to economic policies.
C. Are enforceable by courts.
D. Cover a broader range of objectives.
Answer: D
XIII. A two-day National Conference on Judicial Process Re-engineering and Digital Transformation: Empowering the Justice System by Reviewing the Past, Re-engineering the Present, Redefining the Future was inaugurated under the joint aegis of the eCommittee, Supreme Court of India, and the Department of Justice, Government of India.
The conference was inaugurated by Hon’ble Mr. Justice Surya Kant, Chief Justice of India and Patron-in-Chief, eCommittee, who emphasised that technology should strengthen access to fair, timely, and effective justice. Hon’ble Mr. Justice Vikram Nath, Chairperson of the eCommittee, stressed that judicial reforms require both digital transformation and process re-engineering.
Shri Arjun Ram Meghwal, Minister of State (Independent Charge), Ministry of Law & Justice, said that technology-driven reforms under the vision of “Reform, Perform, Transform” are modernising governance and the justice system. Shri Jitin Prasada, Minister of State for Commerce & Industry and Electronics & Information Technology, highlighted that initiatives such as Aadhaar, UPI, and DigiLocker are enabling efficient digital governance and strengthening technology-driven judicial processes through close collaboration between the Government and the judiciary.
[Extracted from: Press Release issued by the eCommittee, Supreme Court of India, 11 April 2026]
65. The two-day National Conference on Judicial Process Re-engineering and Digital Transformation was organised under the joint aegis of:
A. NITI Aayog and Ministry of Electronics & IT
B. eCommittee, Supreme Court of India and Department of Justice, Government of India
C. Ministry of Home Affairs and Supreme Court of India
D. Law Commission of India and Ministry of Law & Justice
Answer: B
66. According to the Chief Justice of India, technology should primarily serve to:
A. Replace judges in courts
B. Increase judicial fees
C. Strengthen access to fair, timely, and effective justice
D. Eliminate physical courts entirely
Answer: C
67. Hon’ble Mr. Justice Vikram Nath emphasised that meaningful judicial reforms require:
A. Artificial Intelligence alone
B. Digital transformation along with process re-engineering
C. Complete privatisation of courts
D. More tribunals instead of courts
Answer: B
68. The vision of “Reform, Perform, Transform” was highlighted by:
A. Shri Arjun Ram Meghwal
B. Hon’ble Mr. Justice Surya Kant
C. Shri Jitin Prasada
D. Hon’ble Mr. Justice Vikram Nath
Answer: A
69. Which of the following digital initiatives was NOT mentioned by Shri Jitin Prasada?
A. Aadhaar
B. UPI
C. DigiLocker
D. CoWIN
Answer: D
70. Shri Arjun Ram Meghwal stated that India has entered the era of:
A. Industry 2.0
B. Industry 3.0
C. Industry 4.0
D. Industry 5.0
Answer: C
XIV. Irretrievable breakdown of marriage is not a valid ground under the Act for the grant of divorce. The Act permits a decree of divorce to be passed either when certain matrimonial offences have been committed by either party or by mutual consent. The jurisprudence relating to the grant of divorce under Article 142(1) on the ground of irretrievable breakdown of marriage has evolved cautiously through a series of judicial pronouncements. A Constitution Bench of this Court in Shilpa Sailesh v. Varun Sreenivasan, reported in (2023) 14 SCC 231, held that the power to grant divorce under Article 142(1) can be exercised by this Court only in cases where it is satisfied that there has been a ‘complete and irretrievable breakdown’ of the marriage. Further, in Rinku Baheti v. Sandesh Sharda, reported in (2025) 3 SCC 686, this Court held that while considering whether a marriage has irretrievably broken down, the Court is required to take a holistic view of the relationship between the parties before arriving at such a conclusion.
[Extracted from Dhananjay Rathi v. Ruchika Rathi (2026 INSC 360)]
71. According to the passage, irretrievable breakdown of marriage is:
A. A statutory ground for divorce under the Hindu Marriage Act.
B. A ground available only when both parties consent.
C. Not a valid statutory ground for divorce under the Act.
D. A ground available before all Family Courts.
Answer: C
72. In Rinku Baheti v. Sandesh Sharda (2025), the Supreme Court held that while determining whether a marriage has irretrievably broken down, the Court must:
A. Consider only the period of separation.
B. Rely solely on the wishes of one spouse.
C. Focus only on financial disputes.
D. Adopt a holistic view of the relationship between the parties.
Answer: D
73. Which of the following is the highest appellate court in India?
A. Supreme Court
B. National Green Tribunal
C. High Court
D. District Court
Answer: A
74. The Constitution Bench in Shilpa Sailesh v. Varun Sreenivasan (2023) held that the Supreme Court may exercise its power under Article 142(1):
A. Whenever the parties have been living separately.
B. Only when there is complete and irretrievable breakdown of the marriage.
C. Only if both spouses mutually consent.
D. In every divorce petition before it.
Answer: B
75. The Constitution of India is best described as:
A. A book of stories
B. The supreme law of the country
C. A collection of court judgments
D. A government policy
Answer: B
76. Who made the Constitution of India?
A. Supreme Court
B. President
C. Prime Minister
D. Constituent Assembly
Answer: D
XV. Punjab Governor Gulab Chand Kataria has given assent to the anti-sacrilege Jaagat Jot Sri Guru Granth Sahib Satkar (Amendment) Bill, 2026. With his approval, the Bill is now formally enacted, allowing the state to implement its provisions with immediate effect. Punjab Chief Minister Bhagwant Mann confirmed the development earlier today by sharing a copy of the signed file on his social media platform.
The Bill is an amendment to the Jaagat Jot Sri Guru Granth Sahib Satkar Act, 2008, related to sacrilege and conspiracy for sacrilege against the Guru Granth Sahib. It includes provision for punishment of 10 years to life with fine upto Rs. 25 lakh. Earlier, the Bill was unanimously passed by the Punjab Vidhan Sabha on April 13.
[Extracted from News On AIR (Akashvani News), Punjab Governor Gives Assent To Anti-Sacrilege Jaagat Jot Sri Guru Granth Sahib Satkar (Amendment) Bill, 2026, April 19, 2026.]
77. The Punjab Governor who gave assent to the Jaagat Jot Sri Guru Granth Sahib Satkar (Amendment) Bill, 2026 is:
A. Banwarilal Purohit
B. Gulab Chand Kataria
C. Arif Mohammed Khan
D. C.P. Radhakrishnan
Answer: B
78. The amendment is made to which Act?
A. Punjab Religious Institutions Act, 2005
B. Sikh Gurdwaras Act, 1925
C. Jaagat Jot Sri Guru Granth Sahib Satkar Act, 2008
D. Punjab Preservation of Religious Heritage Act, 2010
Answer: C
79. Under the amended law, the punishment for offences includes:
A. Up to 5 years imprisonment only
B. 7 years imprisonment only
C. Death penalty
D. 10 years to life imprisonment with fine up to ₹25 lakh
Answer: D
80. The Punjab Legislative Assembly passed the Bill:
A. January 26, 2026
B. March 23, 2026
C. April 13, 2026
D. May 1, 2026
Answer: C
81. The Bill was passed by the Punjab Vidhan Sabha on:
A. January 26, 2026
B. March 31, 2026
C. April 25, 2026
D. April 13, 2026
Answer: D
82. Who confirmed the Governor’s assent by sharing the signed file on social media?
A. Arvind Kejriwal
B. Bhagwant Mann
C. Harpal Singh Cheema
D. Navjot Singh Sidhu
Answer: B
SECTION IV
XVI. During a reasoning activity, students were given the word “KEYBOARD.” The teacher explained that they had to carefully follow a sequence of instructions. First, they had to take the first half of the word, reverse those letters, and leave the remaining letters unchanged. Next, they had to identify the last letter of the original word and place it at the beginning of the newly formed arrangement. Finally, they had to add the letter “X” at the end. The teacher reminded the class that even a small mistake in the sequence would produce the wrong answer. Students who followed each instruction correctly arrived at the correct transformed word.
83. Which letter was added at the end?
A. Y
B. X
C. D
D. O
Answer: B
84. How many letters are there in the final transformed word?
A. 8
B. 9
C. 10
D. 11
Answer: C
85. Which letter was prefixed before adding “X”?
A. R
B. D
C. O
D. B
Answer: B
86. How many letters are there in the final transformed word?
A. 8
B. 9
C. 11
D. 10
Answer: D
87. What was the original word?
A. KEYPAD
B. KEYBOARD
C. COMPUTER
D. LAPTOP
Answer: B
88. Which part of the word was reversed?
A. Entire word
B. Last half
C. First half
D. Middle letters
Answer: C
XVII. A metropolitan city introduced a “Green Commute Policy” to reduce air pollution and traffic congestion. Under the policy, employees working in government offices were encouraged to use public transport, bicycles, or carpooling at least three days a week. Departments that achieved the highest participation rates would receive additional funding for workplace improvements.
Six months after implementation, the city’s transport authority reported a noticeable increase in public transport usage during office hours. However, data also showed that traffic congestion during peak hours had decreased only marginally. Environmental groups argued that the policy had not significantly reduced private vehicle usage because many participants simply shifted their travel schedules instead of changing their mode of transport.
The government responded that the policy was intended to encourage gradual behavioural change rather than produce immediate results. It further announced that future evaluations would also consider long-term environmental indicators, including fuel consumption and air quality, instead of relying only on traffic congestion data.
Some economists welcomed this approach, arguing that policies aimed at changing public behaviour often require time before measurable outcomes become visible. Others contended that public funds should be spent only on programmes that demonstrate immediate and quantifiable benefits.
89. Which of the following is the main issue discussed in the passage?
A. Whether public transport should be made free for everyone.
B. Whether the Green Commute Policy can be judged solely by short-term traffic data.
C. Whether bicycles are safer than motor vehicles.
D. Whether government employees should receive higher salaries.
Answer: B
90. The government’s response is based on which assumption?
A. Behavioural change usually takes time to produce measurable results.
B. Public transport is always cheaper than private vehicles.
C. All employees support environmental policies.
D. Traffic congestion is unrelated to pollution.
Answer: A
91. Which statement, if true, would most strengthen the government’s position?
A. Air quality improved significantly one year after the policy was introduced.
B. More people purchased private vehicles during the same period.
C. Government offices reduced their working hours.
D. Traffic cameras malfunctioned during the survey.
Answer: A
92. Which statement, if true, would most weaken the government’s argument?
A. Air quality and fuel consumption remained unchanged even after several years of implementation.
B. More buses were introduced on city routes.
C. Employees preferred flexible work timings.
D. Public transport usage increased among students.
Answer: A
93. Which of the following can be most reasonably inferred from the passage?
A. Reduced traffic congestion is the only indicator of a successful transport policy.
B. Different groups evaluate the success of public policies using different standards.
C. The Green Commute Policy has already achieved all its objectives.
D. Environmental groups oppose all government initiatives.
Answer: B
94. The economists who supported the policy would most likely agree with which statement?
A. Every government programme should produce immediate results.
B. Long-term evaluation may provide a fairer assessment of behavioural policies.
C. Public transport should replace all private vehicles.
D. Funding should be withdrawn until traffic congestion disappears.
Answer: B
95. Which of the following, if established, would most seriously challenge the environmental groups’ conclusion?
A. A large number of employees permanently switched from private vehicles to public transport after the first year.
B. The city constructed new roads during the study period.
C. Bicycle sales increased in neighbouring cities.
D. Fuel prices increased nationwide.
Answer: A
XVIII. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
During a family game, a group of cousins created a set of symbols to represent different family relationships. They decided that A # B means A is the father of B, A % B means A is the sister of B, A @ B means A is the wife of B, and A ^ B means A is the son of B. To explain the system, one cousin interpreted M # N % O as M being the father of N, while N is the sister of O, making M the father of O as well. Another cousin decoded P ^ Q @ R, saying that P is the son of Q, and Q is the wife of R, so P is the son of both Q and R.
96. What does the symbol “#” denote?
A. Brother
B. Father
C. Husband
D. Son
Answer: B
97. If X # Y % Z, what is X to Z?
A. Father
B. Uncle
C. Brother
D. Grandfather
Answer: A
98. What does the symbol “@” denote?
A. Daughter
B. Mother
C. Wife
D. Sister
Answer: C
99. If A ^ B @ C, how is A related to C?
A. Son
B. Brother
C. Father
D. Nephew
Answer: A
100. Which expression shows T is the sister of U?
A. T # U
B. T % U
C. U % T
D. T ^ U
Answer: B
XIX. Five teams—Alpha (A), Bravo (B), Cobra (C), Delta (D), and Eagle (E)—are scheduled to participate in a cybersecurity simulation over five consecutive time slots numbered 1 to 5. Each team is assigned exactly one slot.
The following conditions apply:
- Bravo (B) is scheduled after Alpha (A).
- Cobra (C) is scheduled immediately before Delta (D).
- Cobra (C) is not scheduled in Slot 4 or Slot 5.
- Eagle (E) is not scheduled in Slot 1.
- Alpha (A) is not scheduled immediately before or immediately after Delta (D).
Based on the above information, answer the following questions.
101. Which of the following is a valid schedule?
A. A – B – C – D – E
B. C – D – A – E – B
C. E – C – D – B – A
D. C – D – B – A – E
Answer: B
102. If Eagle is scheduled in Slot 5, which of the following must be true?
A. Alpha is in Slot 1
B. Bravo is in Slot 4
C. Cobra is in Slot 2
D. Delta is in Slot 3
Answer: B
103. If Cobra is scheduled in Slot 2, Delta must be scheduled in:
A. Slot 1
B. Slot 2
C. Slot 3
D. Slot 4
Answer: C
104. Cobra cannot be scheduled in:
A. Slot 1 or Slot 2
B. Slot 2 or Slot 3
C. Slot 4 or Slot 5
D. Slot 3 or Slot 5
Answer: C
105. Delta is always scheduled:
A. Before Cobra
B. Immediately after Cobra
C. Before Alpha
D. After Bravo
Answer: B
XX. Extreme heat is a major environmental and occupational health risk that can worsen conditions such as cardiovascular disease, diabetes, asthma, and mental health disorders. It also increases the risk of heatstroke, a life-threatening medical emergency, accidents, and the spread of some infectious diseases.
Climate change has significantly increased exposure to extreme heat worldwide. Between 2000 and 2019, an estimated 489,000 heat-related deaths occurred annually, with the highest burden in Asia (45%) and Europe (36%). Older adults are particularly vulnerable, with heat-related mortality among people aged over 65 increasing by about 85% between 2000–2004 and 2017–2021.
The health impacts of heat are largely predictable and preventable through effective public health measures, climate action, early warning systems, and preparedness strategies. The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends coordinated policies and interventions to reduce heat-related health risks and save lives.
106. Between 2000 and 2019, approximately how many heat-related deaths occurred annually worldwide?
A. 189,000
B. 289,000
C. 489,000
D. 689,000
Answer: C
107. According to the passage, which continent accounted for the highest share of annual heat-related deaths?
A. Europe
B. North America
C. Asia
D. Africa
Answer: C
108. Approximately what percentage of annual heat-related deaths occurred in Europe?
A. 25%
B. 36%
C. 45%
D. 56%
Answer: B
109. Heat-related mortality among people aged over 65 increased by about:
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 85%
D. 100%
Answer: C
110. Which group is specifically mentioned as being particularly vulnerable to extreme heat?
A. Children below five years only
B. Older adults aged over 65 years
C. Professional athletes only
D. College students
Answer: B
XXI. During the first half of FY 2025–26 (April–September 2025), Indian equity markets remained resilient and continued their upward momentum despite brief spells of volatility caused by global trade policy uncertainty and geopolitical developments.
The BSE Sensex rose by 3.9% during the period (up to September 26, 2025). Broader market indices outperformed the benchmark, with the BSE MidCap Index gaining 7.7% and the BSE SmallCap Index advancing 12.1%, reflecting strong investor confidence across market segments.
The Indian rupee witnessed two-way movements amid heightened global volatility but remained among the least volatile emerging market currencies. Its stability was supported by strong macroeconomic fundamentals, including a lower current account deficit, resilient services exports, robust remittance inflows, and comfortable foreign exchange reserves.
111. During the first half of FY 2025–26, Indian equity markets remained resilient despite volatility caused mainly by:
A. Domestic political instability
B. Global trade policy uncertainty and geopolitical developments
C. High inflation in India
D. Weak corporate earnings
Answer: B
112. By how much did the BSE Sensex increase during April–September FY 2025–26 (up to September 26, 2025)?
A. 2.1%
B. 3.9%
C. 7.7%
D. 12.1%
Answer: B
113. Which index recorded the highest growth during the period?
A. BSE Sensex
B. BSE MidCap Index
C. BSE SmallCap Index
D. Nifty 50
Answer: C
114. The BSE MidCap Index gained:
A. 3.9%
B. 5.2%
C. 7.7%
D. 12.1%
Answer: C
115. The outperformance of the MidCap and SmallCap indices over the Sensex primarily indicates:
A. Declining investor participation
B. Strong investor confidence across market segments
C. Weak economic growth
D. Reduced trading activity
Answer: B
XXII. Rising prices significantly influence household consumption patterns by altering spending priorities and reducing purchasing power. Inflation particularly affects demand in essential sectors such as food, energy, healthcare, education, and tourism, while also diminishing overall social welfare. Persistent increases in the cost of living place additional pressure on consumers and highlight the importance of effective consumer protection measures.
According to data from Jordan’s Department of Statistics, the country’s inflation rate increased from 4.27% in 2012 to 6.07% in 2013. The sharpest price increases were recorded in transportation (13.3%), fuel and electricity (24.3%), rentals (4.0%), vegetables (11.7%), and meat and poultry (5.1%). At the same time, the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) ranked Jordan 82nd out of 174 countries on the Human Development Index. Income statistics further revealed that 89.4% of the population earned less than 500 JD per month, while only 10.6% earned above 500 JD, indicating that a large proportion of Jordanian households struggled to meet their basic living expenses.
The long-term consequences of sustained inflation extend beyond economic hardship to include adverse health and social outcomes. To reduce these effects, policymakers should adopt measures that stimulate domestic markets, align income growth with inflation, strengthen consumer purchasing power, and encourage greater private investment in sectors that address the needs and preferences of Jordanian consumers.
116. Jordan’s inflation rate increased from ______ in 2012 to ______ in 2013.
A. 6.07% to 4.27%
B. 3.27% to 5.07%
C. 4.27% to 6.07%
D. 5.27% to 7.07%
Answer: C
117. What was the increase in transportation prices in Jordan during 2013?
A. 5.1%
B. 11.7%
C. 13.3%
D. 24.3%
Answer: C
118. According to the passage, Jordan was ranked ______ on the Human Development Index by the UNDP.
A. 74th
B. 82nd
C. 102nd
D. 174th
Answer: B
119. What proportion of Jordan’s population earned less than 500 JD per month?
A. 50.6%
B. 72.4%
C. 89.4%
D. 94.8%
Answer: C
120. According to the passage, sustained inflation can lead to:
A. Improved public health
B. Higher tourism revenues only
C. Reduced need for government intervention
D. Adverse health and social outcomes
Answer: D
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