CLAT PG Mock Legal Practice Questions May 2026

Legal Bites presents the CLAT PG Mock Legal Practice Questions – May 2026, carefully designed to sharpen your preparation strategy and elevate your legal aptitude for the upcoming examination. In today’s highly competitive landscape, where question patterns are becoming increasingly dynamic and judgment-centric, consistent practice with well-curated, concept-driven questions is indispensable.

CLAT PG Mock Legal Practice Questions

May 2026

I. Bentham was the first academic to investigate what constitutes law. Expositorial (law as it is) and censorial (law as it should be) approaches were the two forms of law that he outlined (law as it ought to be). He claimed that under the Expositorial method, law is studied as it is, as a command of the sovereign, whereas the censorial approach looks at what the law should be. Law, according to Bentham, is “an assemblage of signs declaring a will formed or chosen by the Sovereign in a State, concerning the behaviour to be observed in a specific instance by a certain person or class of individuals, who in the case in question are or are assumed to be under to his authority.” Consequently, in his opinion, law is the sovereign’s order. Jeremy went on to say that while no action is inherently immoral, the evil that results from it is. He considered punishments for criminals, stating that an offender’s punishment should be based on utilitarian principles, aiming to raise the total of the community’s pleasure. It must be proven that punishing the person will assist to avert greater communal harm. Excessive punishment is wasteful and should be avoided. Punishment should serve as a deterrence. According to Jeremy Bentham’s beliefs, jurisprudence is the eye of law, as demonstrated by the discussion. In terms of sanctioning offenders, Bentham stated that punishment should serve as a deterrent to offenders from committing subsequent offences.

[Extracted from Hitanshu Chhillar, “Jurisprudence: The Eye of Law,” Indian Journal of Integrated Research in Law, Volume III, Issue III (ISSN: 2583-0538), p. 1.]

1. The Censorial approach, according to Bentham, is concerned with:

A. Historical evolution of law

B. Law as it should be

C. Customs and traditions

D. Judicial precedents

Answer: B

2. Which school of jurisprudence is most closely associated with Bentham?

A. Historical School

B. Sociological School

C. Analytical Positivism

D. Natural Law School

Answer: C

3. Bentham’s theory of punishment is primarily based on the principle of:

A. Retribution

B. Revenge

C. Utilitarianism

D. Restorative Justice

Answer: C

4. Bentham’s distinction between Expositorial and Censorial jurisprudence primarily seeks to separate:

A. Law and economics

B. Law and religion

C. Public law and private law

D. What law is from what law ought to be

Answer: D

5. Bentham’s conception of punishment is primarily aimed at:

A. Rehabilitation alone

B. Revenge against the offender

C. Compensation to victims

D. Deterrence of future offences

Answer: D

II. Law as a body of knowledge cannot survive in isolation. Law needs to be studied with various other subjects and their intersectionality. There are various schools of Jurisprudence, viz. Natural School, Analytical School, Realist School, Sociological School, Historical School and others. Among these, the most interesting and intriguing one is the Historical School of Jurisprudence, which has its origin and basis in the human history itself.

Historical school advocates that law as a branch of study has developed from social norms, customs, conventions, traditions, religious practices, folklore, human relations and necessities. Thus, according to the proponents of this school, there exists a strong relation between law and the developing needs of society. Law cannot be stagnant. It evolves with the evolving times and the changes in the human society. Historical events influence and at times, change the course of law and vice versa.

The Historical School as a school of thought in jurisprudence and approach to study law developed in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries. The proponents of this school believe that law stems from the history of a community or people in a region or Nation-State and that law cannot in a spontaneous, arbitrary or haphazard manner. The roots of the historical school lie deep in the Roman Law.

[Extracted from Shraddha Pandit, Historical School of Jurisprudence: An Intriguing Province, International Journal of Law Management & Humanities, Vol. 6, Issue 1 (2023)]

6. According to the Historical School of Jurisprudence, law primarily develops from:

A. Legislative enactments alone

B. Judicial precedents alone

C. Customs, traditions, and social practices

D. International treaties

Answer: C

7. Which of the following is NOT identified in the passage as influencing the development of law?

A. Customs

B. Religious practices

C. Folklore

D. Artificial Intelligence

Answer: D

8. The roots of the Historical School are stated to lie deep in:

A. English Common Law

B. Roman Law

C. Canon Law

D. Hindu Law

Answer: B

9. The Historical School of Jurisprudence developed primarily during the:

A. Fifteenth and Sixteenth centuries

B. Sixteenth and Seventeenth centuries

C. Eighteenth and Nineteenth centuries

D. Twentieth century

Answer: C

10. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a school of jurisprudence in the passage?

A. Feminist School

B. Analytical School

C. Natural School

D. Sociological School

Answer: A

III. State succession is a well-established doctrine in international law that governs the transfer of rights, obligations, and legal relationships from one sovereign state (the predecessor state) to another (the successor state). The concept developed primarily through nineteenth-century diplomatic practice and has since evolved into an important principle of international law. It generally arises when a state ceases to exist, undergoes territorial changes, or loses sovereignty over part of its territory, resulting in the emergence of a new state or the transfer of authority to another existing state.

State succession involves the transmission of various legal rights and responsibilities, including state property, public archives, diplomatic missions abroad, monetary reserves, treaty obligations, membership in international organisations, and public debts. A successor state may, in certain situations, decide which rights and obligations it is willing to assume. However, this discretion is not absolute. For example, where the predecessor state is a party to international human rights treaties, there is a strong expectation under international law that the successor state will continue to honour those obligations in order to ensure the uninterrupted protection of human rights.

To codify the principles governing treaty succession, the Vienna Convention on Succession of States in Respect of Treaties, 1978 was adopted. The Convention entered into force on 6 November 1996 and provides a legal framework for determining the continuity or termination of treaty obligations following state succession.

State succession occurs when one state ceases to exist, is dissolved, or relinquishes sovereignty over part of its territory, while another state emerges or assumes control over that territory. It is important to distinguish state succession from a mere change in government. A change in the political system or form of government—such as the transition from a monarchy to a democracy, does not affect the state’s international legal personality or discharge it from obligations undertaken by its previous government.

[Extracted and revised from The Lawyers & Jurists, “The Term State Succession under International Law Signifies the Transmission of the Rights and Obligations of One State to Another in Consequence of Territorial Sovereignty.]

11. State succession generally arises when:

A. A state changes its constitution.

B. A monarchy becomes a democracy.

C. A state ceases to exist or loses sovereignty over part of its territory, resulting in another state assuming control.

D. A new government comes to power after elections.

Answer: C

12. Which of the following is NOT ordinarily transferred through state succession?

A. Diplomatic missions abroad

B. Public debts

C. Treaty obligations

D. Personal property of citizens

Answer: D

13. The Vienna Convention on Succession of States in Respect of Treaties was adopted in:

A. 1945

B. 1978

C. 1969

D. 1996

Answer: B

14. In the context of state succession, the state that transfers its rights and obligations is known as the:

A. Receiving State

B. Successor State

C. Predecessor State

D. Recognising State

Answer: C

15. A transition from monarchy to democracy within the same state ordinarily:

A. Does not affect the state’s international legal personality.

B. Terminates all treaty obligations.

C. Constitutes state succession.

D. Requires recognition by the United Nations.

Answer: A

IV. The United Nations functions through a wide network of specialised agencies and affiliated organisations that work to promote international peace, development, human rights, education, health, and social welfare. These organisations address global challenges by supporting member states in achieving sustainable development and improving the quality of life across the world.

One of the most prominent agencies is the United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF), which is dedicated to protecting and promoting the rights and welfare of children. UNICEF works to ensure access to education, healthcare, nutrition, clean water, and protection from exploitation, violence, and discrimination.

Another important organisation is the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO). UNESCO promotes international cooperation in education, science, culture, and communication. It is particularly known for identifying and preserving World Heritage Sites and safeguarding the cultural and natural heritage of humanity.

The United Nations has also played a significant role in advancing social and economic development. Through international conferences, including the landmark World Conference on Women held in Mexico City in 1975, the organisation brought global attention to women’s rights and gender equality, laying the foundation for subsequent international initiatives aimed at empowering women.

In the field of economic development, organisations such as the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) and the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) have made substantial contributions. UNCTAD assists developing countries in integrating into the global economy by promoting fair trade, investment, and sustainable economic growth. UNDP works to reduce poverty, strengthen democratic governance, protect the environment, and support sustainable development initiatives across the globe.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Sani Kumar & Aakanksha Gupta, “Relevance of the United Nation in the Contemporary World,” International Journal of Novel Research and Development (IJNRD), Vol. 7, Issue 7, July 2022, ISSN: 2456-4184]

16. Which United Nations organisation works to reduce poverty and promote democratic governance?

A. UNDP

B. UNESCO

C. UNICEF

D. ICAO

Answer: A

17. Assertion (A): UNICEF promotes access to education, healthcare, nutrition, and protection for children.

Reason (R): UNICEF was established to safeguard the rights and welfare of children worldwide.

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C. A is true, but R is false.

D. A is false, but R is true.

Answer: A

18. Match the Following

19. UNESCO is best known for:

A. Regulating international financial institutions

B. Preserving World Heritage Sites and promoting education, science, and culture

C. Providing humanitarian military assistance

D. Supervising international criminal trials

Answer: B

20. The landmark World Conference on Women held in 1975 took place in:

A. Geneva

B. Nairobi

C. Beijing

D. Mexico City

Answer: D

V. Learned counsel for Panchayat has argued that the concerned revision survey numbers mentioned in the public notice dated 29.01.2013 and the entire land in area of Village Uchgaon falls within the jurisdiction of Panchayat and the Corporation has no concern with the same.

Learned counsel for Panchayat points out that the Corporation has failed to produce the notification dated 30.06.1945 which brought the concerned lands under its limits. It is further stated that no other document has been brought on record to show the disputed area in limits of Corporation.

[Extracted from Unchgaon Village Panchayat v. Kolhapur Municipal Corporation & Another (2026 INSC 405)]

21. According to the Panchayat’s counsel, the land mentioned in the public notice dated 29.01.2013 falls within the jurisdiction of:

A. The Municipal Corporation

B. The State Government

C. The Panchayat

D. The District Collector

Answer: C

22. The constitutional provisions relating to Panchayats are contained in:

A. Part VIII

B. Part IX

C. Part IXA

D. Part XI

Answer: B

23. If a dispute arises regarding whether a particular area falls within a Municipal Corporation or a Gram Panchayat, the primary issue concerns:

A. Legislative competence.

B. Territorial jurisdiction of local self-government institutions.

C. Judicial review of constitutional amendments.

D. Fundamental Rights.

Answer: B

24. The Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules were introduced by the:

A. 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments respectively.

B. 42nd and 44th Amendments respectively.

C. 44th and 52nd Amendments respectively.

D. 86th and 97th Amendments respectively.

Answer: A

25. Which constitutional principle best supports the proposition that a public authority cannot assume jurisdiction merely on assertion?

A. Collective responsibility

B. Residuary legislative power

C. Parliamentary sovereignty

D. Rule of Law

Answer: D

VI. Before the High Court, the petitioner challenged these orders by filing a petition under Section 528 of the BNSS. The petitioner clarified that he was not seeking further investigation in FIR No. 03 of 2023; rather, his grievance was confined to the police’s failure to register a separate FIR on the basis of the statements made by his wife and her family members during the investigation of the existing case.

In its order dated 30 July 2025, the High Court acknowledged this distinction but held that the relief sought would, in effect, amount to an indirect reinvestigation of FIR No. 03 of 2023. The Court further observed that a Magistrate cannot act merely as a “post office” by mechanically directing the registration of an FIR. Finding no infirmity in the concurrent decisions of the Magistrate and the Sessions Court, the High Court declined to interfere and dismissed the petition.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Rahul Gupta v. Station House Officer & Ors. (2026 INSC 374)]

26. What was the petitioner’s primary grievance before the High Court?

A. Delay in filing the chargesheet.

B. Failure to conduct further investigation in FIR No. 03 of 2023.

C. Failure to register a separate FIR based on statements made during the investigation.

D. Illegal arrest by the investigating officer.

Answer: C

27. According to the High Court, granting the relief sought by the petitioner would effectively amount to:

A. Reinvestigation of FIR No. 03 of 2023

B. Transfer of investigation

C. Fresh trial

D. Closure of the criminal proceedings

Answer: A

28. Which precedent is most closely associated with the principle that a Magistrate must apply judicial mind before directing registration of an FIR under Section 156(3) CrPC [now corresponding provision Section 175 (3) of BNSS ]?

A. Lalita Kumari v. Government of Uttar Pradesh

B. Priyanka Srivastava v. State of Uttar Pradesh

C. Arnesh Kumar v. State of Bihar

D. State of Haryana v. Bhajan Lal

Answer: B

29. Which of the following is NOT ordinarily a purpose for which inherent powers under Section 528 BNSS are exercised?

A. Preventing abuse of the process of any court.

B. Securing the ends of justice.

C. Giving effect to orders passed under the BNSS.

D. Replacing the statutory procedure prescribed under the BNSS whenever the High Court considers it convenient.

Answer: D

30. Assertion (A): The High Court possesses inherent powers under Section 528 BNSS.

Reason (R): Such powers are intended to secure the ends of justice and prevent abuse of the process of the court.

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation.

C. A is true, but R is false.

D. A is false, but R is true.

Answer: A

VII. The equal treatment came to be denied to the appellant to his discrimination. The facts obtained strikingly attract the tenets of Articles 14 and 16 of the Constitution, to violate the fundamental concept of equality in law and equal treatment in the matters of employment. Substantive justice and real justice is always subserved by applying the doctrine of equality.

In the year 2019, new Rules came into force. The educational qualification for the post of Society Manager came to be reframed to be lowered again and the requirement was re-enacted to Higher Secondary with one-year diploma in computer education. Order dated 01.11.2019, whereby the aforesaid qualification was provided for, figures on record, having been produced by the appellant. It further contemplated that if the person concerned does not possess the computer-related qualification, he would be granted one-year period to acquire such qualification.

[Extracted from Kamal Prasad Dubey v. State of Madhya Pradesh & Ors. (2026) INSC 353]

31. According to the passage, which constitutional provisions were found to be attracted due to the discrimination suffered by the appellant?

A. Articles 19 and 21

B. Articles 14 and 16

C. Articles 15 and 17

D. Articles 32 and 226

Answer: B

32. According to the passage, a candidate lacking the prescribed computer qualification would:

A. Lose eligibility permanently.

B. Receive provisional appointment for six months.

C. Be granted one year to acquire the qualification.

D. Be exempted from computer education altogether.

Answer: C

33. Equal protection of laws under Article 14 is derived from:

A. British Constitution

B. Irish Constitution

C. U.S. Constitution

D. French Constitution

Answer: C

34. If similarly situated candidates are treated differently without any rational basis, the burden on the State is to show:

A. Parliamentary approval.

B. A reasonable justification for the classification.

C. Popular support.

D. Administrative convenience alone.

Answer: B

35. Arrange the following provisions of Article 16 in the order in which they were inserted into the Constitution:

1. Article 16(4A)

2. Article 16(4B)

3. Article 16(6)

Options:

A. 1–2–3

B. 2–1–3

C. 3–2–1

D. 2–3–1

Answer: A

VIII. Mr. Sethi contended that the Revenue’s preliminary objection, alleging that the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) [CIT(A)] had admitted additional evidence in contravention of Rule 46A of the Income Tax Rules, 1962, was without merit. He argued that the assessment order for Assessment Year (AY) 1999–2000 had already allowed the deduction under Section 35D of the Income Tax Act, and the assessment orders for the subsequent years could not be treated as “additional evidence” because they were already part of the Revenue’s own records. According to him, such material was merely clarificatory in nature and did not fall within the scope of Rule 46A.

In support of this contention, Mr. Sethi relied upon Sri Shankar Khandasari Sugar Mills v. CIT, (1992) 193 ITR 669 (Kar), where the assessee had produced a sales tax assessment order for the first time before the CIT(A). Although the appellate authority declined to consider it on the ground that it constituted additional evidence, the Karnataka High Court held that such refusal was unjustified. He also placed reliance on CIT v. Lakshmi Vilas Bank, (2010) 329 ITR 591 (Mad), to reinforce the proposition that documents already forming part of official records or having a clarificatory character cannot be rejected as additional evidence under Rule 46A.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from VNG Automotive Pvt. Ltd. v. Assistant Commissioner of Income Tax, ITA 795/2004]

36. The Revenue objected to the order of the CIT(A) primarily on the ground that:

A. The deduction under Section 35D was wrongly granted.

B. The CIT(A) lacked jurisdiction to hear the appeal.

C. The CIT(A) admitted additional evidence in violation of Rule 46A of the Income Tax Rules, 1962.

D. The assessment order for AY 1999–2000 was barred by limitation.

Answer: C

37. According to Mr. Sethi, the assessment orders for the subsequent years could not be treated as additional evidence because they:

A. Were obtained after the appeal was filed.

B. Had already been accepted by the assessee.

C. Were certified copies issued by the High Court.

D. Formed part of the Revenue’s own records.

Answer: D

38. The decision in Sri Shankar Khandasari Sugar Mills v. CIT was relied upon to establish that:

A. Refusal to consider a document merely because it was produced before the CIT(A) for the first time may be unjustified.

B. Sales tax assessments bind income tax authorities.

C. Section 35D deductions are mandatory.

D. Rule 46A is unconstitutional.

Answer: A

39. The central controversy in the passage concerns:

A. Scope and application of Rule 46A relating to additional evidence before the CIT(A).

B. Validity of reassessment proceedings.

C. Interpretation of Section 35D.

D. Limitation under the Income Tax Act.

Answer: A

40. The judgment in CIT v. Lakshmi Vilas Bank was cited by Mr. Sethi to:

A. Challenge the constitutional validity of Rule 46A.

B. Support the contention regarding the treatment of clarificatory material.

C. Establish that deductions under Section 35D are perpetual.

D. Hold that appellate authorities cannot rely on Revenue records.

Answer: B

IX. The present application seeks anticipatory bail in connection with FIR No. 586/2025 registered at Police Station Vijay Vihar, Delhi, for an offence punishable under Section 69 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (BNS).

According to the FIR, lodged on 29 October 2025, the prosecutrix came into contact with the applicant in 2023 while working at a restaurant in Rohini. The applicant, a resident of Ashok Vihar, frequently visited the same gym, and the two eventually developed a friendship. It is alleged that the applicant proposed marriage and, on that assurance, established physical relations with the prosecutrix, continuing the relationship on the promise that he would marry her.

The prosecutrix further alleges that she discovered her pregnancy on 20 September 2025 and informed the applicant, who allegedly persuaded her to terminate it with medication. Despite this, the applicant allegedly continued the relationship and last had sexual relations with her on 24 October 2025 on the same promise of marriage. The following day, when the prosecutrix again found herself pregnant and insisted on marriage, the applicant allegedly refused and disclosed that he was already married.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Rohit v. State (NCT of Delhi) & Anr., bail appln. 1228/2026]

41. The applicant sought anticipatory bail in connection with an FIR registered for an offence under which provision of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

A. Section 63 BNS

B. Section 64 BNS

C. Section 69 BNS

D. Section 74 BNS

Answer: C

42. The principal object of an FIR is to:

A. Convict the accused

B. Record the first information of a cognizable offence and set the criminal law in motion

C. Determine the guilt of the accused

D. Serve as substantive evidence during trial

Answer: B

43. The maximum punishment prescribed under Section 69 BNS is:

A. Seven years’ imprisonment

B. Life imprisonment

C. Three years’ imprisonment only

D. Ten years’ imprisonment and fine

Answer: D

44. Which of the following is expressly included within “deceitful means” under the Explanation to Section 69 BNS?

A. False promise of employment

B. Refusal to marry due to parental opposition

C. Failure to maintain a spouse

D. Concealment of financial status

Answer: A

45. The FIR was registered at:

A. Police Station Rohini

B. Police Station Ashok Vihar

C. Police Station Vijay Vihar

D. Police Station Pitampura

Answer: C

X. It was further contended that Clause 19 of the registered lease deed dated 22.02.1985 (Ex. P4) expressly prohibits the sub-letting or transfer of tenancy rights, including the sale or transfer of the business, without the prior written consent of the landlord. The respondents have failed to produce any document demonstrating that such consent was ever obtained.

The material available on record further establishes that Respondent Nos. 2 and 3, who are presently in occupation of the premises, have no lawful connection with the original tenancy. Their assertion that they derived tenancy or occupancy rights through an alleged partnership arrangement is unsupported by any legally admissible evidence or document capable of establishing the lawful transfer or continuation of tenancy rights in their favour.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Sri M.V. Ramachandrasa Since Deceased Represented by Legal Heirs v. M/s. Mahendra Watch Company Represented by Its Partners & Ors., 2026 INSC 348]

46. The rights and liabilities enumerated under Section 108 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 apply:

A. Irrespective of any agreement between the parties

B. Only to registered leases

C. In the absence of a contract or local usage to the contrary

D. Only where the lease deed expressly incorporates Section 108

Answer: C

47. The lessor is contractually bound to make repairs but fails to do so within a reasonable time after notice. Which remedy is available to the lessee under Section 108(f) of Transfer of Property Act?

A. The lessee may automatically terminate the lease

B. The lessee may make the repairs and deduct the expenses, with interest, from rent or otherwise recover them from the lessor

C. The lessee may acquire ownership of the property.

D. The lessee may permanently stop paying rent.

Answer: B

48. A material part of leased premises is permanently rendered unfit for the purpose for which it was let due to a flood. Which statement is most accurate?

A. The lease automatically becomes void

B. The lease becomes void at the option of the lessee

C. The lease becomes void at the option of the lessor

D. The lessee must continue the lease unless the lessor agrees to terminate it

Answer: B

49. A lessee knows of a fact concerning the interest he is about to acquire that materially increases its value. The lessor is unaware of that fact. The lessee:

A. Is under no obligation to disclose it because the doctrine of caveat emptor applies

B. Is bound to disclose the fact to the lessor

C. Must disclose it only after execution of the lease

D. Must disclose it only if specifically questioned by the lessor

Answer: B

50. Which of the following rights survives even after determination of the lease, provided possession continues?

A. Right to mortgage

B. Right to sub-lease

C. Right to remove fixtures

D. Right to avoid rent

Answer: C

51. The requirement of a “special resolution,” as referred to in the passage, primarily indicates:

A. Approval by the company’s creditors.

B. Compliance with a prescribed corporate decision-making process before advancing the loan.

C. Permission granted by the criminal court imposing the bail condition.

D. Approval by the Registrar of Companies in every case.

Answer: B

52. A company proposes to advance a loan to the wife of a director of its holding company. Which of the following is correct?

A. The loan may be advanced after passing a special resolution.

B. The loan may be advanced if it is utilised for principal business activities.

C. The loan is prohibited under Section 185(1).

D. The loan is permissible with unanimous Board approval.

Answer: C

53. H Ltd. advances a loan to its wholly owned subsidiary, S Ltd. Which additional requirement is necessary to claim the exception under Section 185(3)?

A. The loan must be interest-free.

B. The loan must be approved by the Central Government.

C. The loan must be utilised by S Ltd. for its principal business activities.

D. S Ltd. must pass a special resolution.

Answer: C

54. Under the Companies Act, 2013, a company is considered a holding company in relation to another company when:

A. It owns any shares in the other company.

B. The other company is its subsidiary company.

C. It exercises significant influence over the other company.

D. Both companies have common directors.

Answer: B

55. H Ltd. is the holding company of S Ltd. Which of the following statements necessarily follows?

A. H Ltd. owns 100% of S Ltd.’s shares.

B. S Ltd. is a subsidiary company of H Ltd.

C. H Ltd. directly holds more than 50% shares in S Ltd.

D. S Ltd. cannot have any subsidiary of its own.

Answer: B

XII. The Industrial Court had, almost 19 years ago ordered that the appellant-employee was entitled to back wages w.e.f. the date of completion of 180 days. The latter had preferred the contempt petition against the non-compliance of this order which was eventually withdrawn on the assurance that he would be regularised. He was regularised as already observed, in 2011. The findings in this order were not challenged and have thus attained finality. Though the order of the Industrial Court in 2020 implicitly recognises this fact but the High Court in the impugned order, completely misses the same. At this stage we must take note of the appointment letter given to the appellant-employee when he was regularised in 2011.

[Extracted from Balaji Madhukar Konkanwar v. Maharashtra State Road Transport Corporation, 2026 INSC 392]

56. According to the passage, what error was committed by the High Court?

A. It refused to exercise contempt jurisdiction

B. It failed to notice that the earlier findings had attained finality

C. It granted regularisation without statutory authority

D. It awarded back wages from the date of initial appointment

Answer: B

57. Why did the appellant-employee withdraw the contempt petition?

A. The Industrial Court recalled its earlier order

B. The High Court stayed the contempt proceedings

C. He was assured that he would be regularised

D. He received the entire amount of back wages

Answer: C

58. The expression “last come, first go” is primarily associated with:

A. Lay-off

B. Retrenchment

C. Closure

D. Strike

Answer: B

59. The power to grant reinstatement to a workman whose dismissal is found unjustified is associated primarily with:

A. Industrial adjudication

B. Criminal jurisdiction

C. Revenue jurisdiction

D. Election jurisdiction

Answer: A

60. Which of the following is NOT ordinarily a function of an Industrial Tribunal?

A. Adjudicating disputes relating to wages

B. Deciding disputes concerning retrenchment

C. Adjudicating disputes concerning conditions of service

D. Conducting criminal trials for offences punishable under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita

Answer: D

XIII. This Court has, time and again, taken cognizance of the rampant illegal mining activities and the grave and far-reaching environmental consequences arising therefrom. It has been consistently observed that unregulated and indiscriminate extraction of sand and other minor minerals leads to severe disruption of riverine and ecological systems by altering natural flow patterns, degrading riverbeds, destabilizing sediment composition, and depleting groundwater reserves.

Such activities not only result in erosion, channel instability, and increased flood vulnerability, but also adversely affect aquatic biodiversity, riparian habitats, agriculture, and water security. The Court has further underscored that mining operations carried out without requisite environmental clearances or scientific replenishment studies reflect a serious failure of regulatory oversight and environmental governance.

The problem is further compounded by the ever-increasing demand for construction materials, giving rise to large-scale illegal mining, often carried out in an organized manner with little regard for the rule of law. In several instances, faced with the alarming scale of environmental degradation and continued non-compliance with statutory safeguards, this Court has not hesitated to direct the immediate cessation or restraint of mining activities until due process, including environmental clearances and scientific assessments, is duly undertaken.

[Extracted from In Re: Illegal Sand Mining in the National Chambal Sanctuary and Threat to Endangered Aquatic Wildlife, 2026 INSC 380]

61. According to the passage, unregulated and indiscriminate extraction of sand may result in which of the following?

A. Alteration of natural flow patterns

B. Depletion of groundwater reserves

C. Destabilisation of sediment composition

D. All of the above

Answer: D

62. The Supreme Court may direct cessation or restraint of mining activities where:

A. Mining generates substantial revenue for the State

B. Environmental degradation and continued non-compliance with statutory safeguards are demonstrated

C. The concerned minerals are classified as minor minerals

D. Mining activities are conducted by private entities

Answer: B

63. The principle of Inter-generational Equity requires that:

A. The present generation may exhaust natural resources upon payment of compensation

B. Natural resources must be utilised in a manner that preserves environmental resources and opportunities for future generations

C. Future generations possess enforceable fundamental rights identical to existing citizens

D. Development projects affecting natural resources are constitutionally prohibited

Answer: B

64. Which case is prominently associated with the Supreme Court’s intervention against limestone quarrying causing ecological degradation in the Mussoorie-Dehradun region?

A. Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra v. State of Uttar Pradesh

B. T.N. Godavarman Thirumulpad v. Union of India

C. A.P. Pollution Control Board v. Prof. M.V. Nayudu

D. Lafarge Umiam Mining Pvt. Ltd. v. Union of India

Answer: A

65. Under the Public Trust Doctrine, which of the following propositions is most accurate?

A. The State possesses unrestricted proprietary rights over natural resources.

B. Natural resources may be transferred to private parties whenever such transfer generates public revenue.

C. The State acts as a trustee of certain natural resources and must protect them for public use and enjoyment.

D. The doctrine applies only to forests notified as protected forests.

Answer: C

XIV. While supporting the conclusions drawn by the Tribunal, it was stated that the termination was rightly stayed as it was stigmatic, arbitrary and passed in violation of principles of natural justice, without notice, hearing or any proper inquiry by the Competent Authority. It has also been the case of the Respondent No.1 that there has been a clear non-compliance with the prescribed procedure and terms of appointment, including failure to provide notice or salary in lieu thereof and lack of approval/participation of the Competent Authority. Hence, the interim relief was justified in light of Deoraj v. State of Maharashtra & Ors.

[Extracted from NBCC India Limited and Anr. v. Novman Ahmed and Anr., W.P.(C) 3162/2026]

66. A termination order is generally regarded as “stigmatic” when:

A. It terminates the services of an employee during probation.

B. It is passed without assigning any reason whatsoever.

C. It contains allegations or findings adversely reflecting upon the employee’s character, conduct, or integrity.

D. It is passed by the appointing authority after giving notice.

Answer: C

67. Which principle of natural justice was primarily alleged to have been violated in the present case?

A. Nemo judex in causa sua

B. Audi alteram partem

C. Res judicata

D. Actus curiae neminem gravabit

Answer: B

68. An authority is required to decide whether a company has violated regulatory conditions. The chairperson of the adjudicatory body owns substantial shares in the company. No evidence of actual prejudice in the final decision is established. Which is the most appropriate conclusion?

A. The decision is valid because actual bias must always be proved.

B. The decision may be invalidated because a direct pecuniary interest attracts the rule against bias irrespective of proof that the outcome was actually affected.

C. The decision is valid unless corruption is established beyond reasonable doubt.

D. The decision can only be challenged by the government.

Answer: B

69. An authority gives a party only two hours to respond to thousands of pages of technical material before cancelling its licence. The party submits a brief response under protest. Which is the strongest legal argument against the cancellation?

A. Participation necessarily amounts to unconditional waiver of natural justice.

B. The opportunity afforded may be merely illusory rather than reasonable and effective.

C. Natural justice requires exactly thirty days’ notice in every proceeding.

D. The cancellation is invalid only if the authority lacked territorial jurisdiction.

Answer: B

70. An adjudicating officer is the brother of the complainant whose allegations initiated disciplinary proceedings against an employee. Which kind of bias is most directly involved?

A. Pecuniary bias

B. Personal bias

C. Subject-matter bias

D. Policy bias

Answer: B

XV. This Court in the case of Ruchi Agarwal (supra) was caught up with a similar situation wherein the husband performed his part of the compromise agreed for mutual consent divorce, however, the wife partly performed her obligations and did not withdraw certain cases. It was argued by the wife that the said compromise was obtained by the husband and his family through threat and coercion. This Court therein held that it was difficult to accept the argument that the compromise was signed under coercion since the wife partly performed the obligations mentioned thereunder.

[Extracted from Dhananjay Rathi v. Ruchika Rathi, arising out of SLP (Crl.) No(s). 1878 of 2026.]

71. Which of the following conditions is expressly contemplated under Section 13B(1) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?

A. The parties must have lived separately for at least two years.

B. The parties must have lived separately for a period of one year or more.

C. The marriage must have subsisted for at least five years.

D. The parties must prove matrimonial fault against each other.

Answer: B

72. Desertion under the Hindu Marriage Act requires:

A. Physical separation alone.

B. Intention to terminate the marriage permanently.

C. Factum of separation and animus deserendi.

D. A decree of judicial separation.

Answer: C

73. Renunciation of the world constitutes a ground for divorce where the respondent:

A. Merely declares an intention to become religious.

B. Joins a charitable organisation.

C. Lives separately for religious purposes.

D. Renounces the world by entering a religious order.

Answer: D

74. For divorce on the ground of repudiation of child marriage, the wife must repudiate the marriage:

A. Before attaining 15 years of age.

B. After attaining 15 years but before attaining 18 years.

C. After attaining 18 years but before attaining 21 years.

D. At any time during the subsistence of the marriage.

Answer: B

75. Which of the following correctly describes cruelty under the Hindu Marriage Act?

A. Only physical cruelty constitutes a ground for divorce.

B. Only conduct resulting in criminal prosecution constitutes cruelty.

C. Cruelty may be physical or mental.

D. Cruelty must continue for at least two years.

Answer: C

XVI. Accordingly, the communications made by Ms. Sivasundari Bose to her close friends and associates concerning her grievance were bona fide and intended to protect her legitimate interests. The material on record is insufficient to establish that her interactions with Ms. Chitra Banerji Divakaruni and Ms. Beulah Shekhar amounted to actionable defamation.

[Extracted with edits from David Davidar v. Sivasundari Bose, CS(COMM) 706/2018]

77. In which case was it held that where a libel refers to a person by description without mentioning the name, the plaintiff must prove that ordinary readers who knew him would have understood the publication as referring to him?

A. Cassidy v. Daily Mirror Newspapers Ltd.

B. Tolley v. J.S. Fry & Sons Ltd.

C. Jones v. Holton & Co.

D. Hulton & Co. v. Jones

Answer: C

78. Which of the following is regarded as a complete defence to an action for civil defamation?

A. Absence of intention to defame

B. Truth or justification

C. Mistake of fact

D. Absence of pecuniary loss

Answer: B

79. In the context of defamation, “publication” means:

A. Printing the defamatory statement in a newspaper.

B. Communicating the defamatory matter to the plaintiff alone.

C. Communication of the statement to at least one hundred persons.

D. Communication of the defamatory matter to at least one person other than the plaintiff.

Answer: D

80. The communications made by Ms. Sivasundari Bose to her close friends and associates were held to be:

A. Malicious publications intended to damage reputation.

B. Bona fide communications intended to protect her legitimate interests.

C. Absolutely privileged communications.

D. Defamatory statements actionable without proof of damage.

Answer: B

XVII. It is pertinent to note that before declaring any particular clause of a contract to be arbitrary, the Court is required to examine the contract in its entirety. Testing a contractual stipulation on the aforesaid basis becomes necessary, for a clause read in isolation may lead to an incorrect conclusion. Selective reading of contractual terms is fraught with inherent dangers and must therefore be avoided.

…………………..Once the Contract itself reserves an express right of termination upon notice, continuation of the contract till the last date of tenure cannot be claimed as a vested or enforceable right in writ jurisdiction.

[Extracted from Md. Karimunnisa v. National Highways Authority of India Through Its Chairman & Anr., W.P.(C) 4817/2026]

81. While interpreting a contract containing several interrelated clauses, the court should ordinarily:

A. Examine only the clause directly challenged by the aggrieved party.

B. Give precedence to the clause most favourable to the weaker party.

C. Read the contract as a whole and harmoniously construe its provisions.

D. Disregard clauses that restrict contractual rights.

Answer: C

82. Which of the following correctly distinguishes a contingent contract from a wagering agreement?

A. Every contingent contract is a wager.

B. Parties to a contingent contract necessarily have no interest in the event.

C. In a wagering agreement, the parties ordinarily have no interest in the event except winning or losing the wager.

D. Wagering agreements are expressly declared illegal throughout India.

Answer: C

83. Which of the following agreements is void ab initio?

A. Contract induced by fraud.

B. Contract induced by coercion.

C. Agreement with a minor.

D. Contract induced by undue influence.

Answer: C

84. A person ordinarily of unsound mind enters into a contract during a lucid interval when he is capable of understanding the contract and forming a rational judgment as to its effect upon his interests. The contract is:

A. Void ab initio.

B. Valid.

C. Voidable at the option of the other party.

D. Illegal.

Answer: B

85. Two persons are said to consent when they:

A. Agree upon the same thing in the same sense.

B. Agree to identical contractual terms in writing.

C. Exchange promises of equal value.

D. Intend to perform their respective promises.

Answer: A

XVIII. It has been brought to the Court’s notice that one of the sons is a citizen of Canada. Undoubtedly, the maintenance, upbringing, and education of the child would entail substantial financial expenditure, particularly in view of the prevailing high cost of living and education. Therefore, the mere fact that the appellant-wife is highly educated and professionally qualified cannot, by itself, absolve the respondent-husband of his matrimonial, paternal, moral, and legal obligations to provide financial support for his wife and children.

Accordingly, in exercise of its jurisdiction under Article 142 of the Constitution of India and with a view to doing complete justice between the parties, the Court directed that the marriage between the appellant-wife and the respondent-husband shall stand dissolved.

[Extracted with edits from XXX v. YYY (Civil Appeal arising out of SLP (C) No. 28311 of 2024)]

86. The Supreme Court’s power under Article 142 to dissolve a marriage on the ground of irretrievable breakdown was authoritatively affirmed in:

A. Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India

B. Shilpa Sailesh v. Varun Sreenivasan

C. Danial Latifi v. Union of India

D. Shayara Bano v. Union of India

Answer: B

87. Consider the following statements concerning Article 142:

1. Article 142 may be exercised only by the Supreme Court.

2. An order passed under Article 142 is enforceable throughout the territory of India.

3. Article 142 authorises the Supreme Court to permanently ignore all substantive statutory prohibitions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

88. For the purposes of maintenance proceedings under Section 144 BNSS, the expression “wife”:

A. Includes only a woman whose marriage is presently subsisting.

B. Includes a divorced woman who has not remarried.

C. Includes every woman who has cohabited with a man.

D. Excludes a woman who obtains divorce by mutual consent.

Answer: B

89. A wife is highly educated and professionally qualified but is presently unable to maintain herself. The husband argues that her educational qualifications automatically disentitle her from claiming maintenance. Which statement is most accurate?

A. The wife is automatically disentitled because earning capacity is equivalent to actual income.

B. Every professionally qualified wife is legally presumed capable of maintaining herself.

C. Mere educational qualification or potential earning capacity does not, by itself, automatically absolve the husband of his legal obligation to provide maintenance.

D. Maintenance can be granted only where the wife has never been employed.

Answer: C

90. Under Section 144 of the BNSS, which of the following persons may claim maintenance, subject to statutory conditions?

1. Wife unable to maintain herself.

2. Legitimate or illegitimate minor child unable to maintain itself.

3. Major child suffering from physical or mental abnormality or injury and unable to maintain itself.

4. Father or mother unable to maintain himself or herself.

Select the correct answer:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1, 2 and 4 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

XIX. As a consequence of our decision to set aside the blacklisting order, we would have required the Department to issue a fresh show cause notice indicative of the reasons as to why a blacklisting order is felt necessary and to thereby call upon the contractor to show cause. However, in view of the fact that the order of termination cum blacklisting was passed on 23.08.2024, and since then almost more than one and a half year has already passed, without there being a stay of the said order in the meantime, we are of the opinion that the relief to be granted can suitably be moulded by directing that the order of blacklisting will cease to operate with immediate effect. This order will benefit the appellant more than the Department, because directing issuance of a fresh show cause notice will only lead to further litigation.

[Extracted from M/s A.K.G. Construction and Developers Pvt. Ltd. v. State of Jharkhand & Ors. 2026 INSC 312]

91. Which of the following statements regarding blacklisting by the State is most accurate?

A. The State possesses an unrestricted right to blacklist any contractor without assigning reasons.

B. Blacklisting is exclusively governed by the Indian Contract Act, 1872.

C. The State’s power to blacklist is subject to fairness, non-arbitrariness, natural justice, and judicial review.

D. Blacklisting can be imposed only after conviction by a criminal court.

Answer: C

92. Which constitutional provision is most directly implicated when a State instrumentality arbitrarily blacklists a contractor?

A. Article 14

B. Article 19(1)(a)

C. Article 20(2)

D. Article 22

Answer: A

93. A government authority possesses contractual power to terminate an agreement and administrative power to blacklist the contractor. Which statement is most accurate?

A. Exercise of contractual power automatically satisfies the requirements applicable to administrative blacklisting.

B. Blacklisting may require independent compliance with constitutional and administrative law principles because it affects future dealings with the State.

C. Constitutional principles never apply when the dispute originates from a contract.

D. Judicial review is excluded whenever a government contract contains a termination clause.

Answer: B

94. Which of the following is not necessarily required for a legally adequate show cause notice?

A. Clear indication of the allegations.

B. Disclosure of the grounds forming the basis of proposed action.

C. Reasonable opportunity to submit a response.

D. Disclosure of the final decision that the authority will ultimately take.

Answer: D

95. The principle that abolition of contract labour does not result in automatic absorption was authoritatively affirmed by the Supreme Court in:

A. Air India Statutory Corporation v. United Labour Union

B. Steel Authority of India Ltd. v. National Union Waterfront Workers

C. Bangalore Water Supply v. A. Rajappa

D. Dharangadhra Chemical Works Ltd. v. State of Saurashtra

Answer: B

XX. The Kyoto Protocol was adopted on 11 December 1997 and, following a complex ratification process, entered into force on 16 February 2005. At present, it has 192 Parties.

The Protocol operationalizes the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) by imposing legally binding obligations on industrialized countries and economies in transition to limit and reduce greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions in accordance with individually agreed targets. In contrast, the UNFCCC primarily requires these countries to adopt mitigation policies and measures and periodically report on their implementation.

The Kyoto Protocol follows the principles, provisions, and annex-based structure of the UNFCCC. Its binding emission-reduction commitments apply principally to developed countries, placing a greater responsibility on them in accordance with the principle of “common but differentiated responsibilities and respective capabilities” (CBDR-RC). This differentiated approach recognizes the greater historical contribution of developed countries to the accumulation of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.

[Extracted with edits from the website UNFCCC.INT]

96. The Kyoto Protocol was adopted on:

A. 5 June 1992

B. 11 December 1997

C. 16 February 2005

D. 12 December 2015

Answer: B

97. The principle of “common but differentiated responsibilities and respective capabilities” (CBDR-RC) primarily signifies that:

A. All States have identical obligations regardless of their historical emissions.

B. Only developing countries are responsible for addressing climate change.

C. States share responsibility for environmental protection, but their obligations may differ according to their historical contribution and capabilities.

D. Developed countries have no obligation to provide assistance to developing countries.

Answer: C

98. The second commitment period under the Kyoto Protocol was established through:

A. Bali Action Plan

B. Doha Amendment

C. Marrakesh Accords

D. Copenhagen Accord

Answer: B

99. Which of the following statements can be correctly inferred from the passage?

A. The Kyoto Protocol is legally independent of the UNFCCC.

B. Ratification of the Kyoto Protocol was completed immediately after its adoption.

C. The Kyoto Protocol abolished the reporting obligations established under the UNFCCC.

D. The Kyoto Protocol strengthened the climate regime by supplementing the general framework of the UNFCCC with binding commitments for specified countries.

Answer: D

100. The term Global Warming Potential (GWP) refers to:

A. A measure of how much heat a greenhouse gas traps in the atmosphere over a specified period relative to carbon dioxide.

B. The amount of solar radiation absorbed by the Earth’s surface.

C. The ability of a country to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.

D. The total quantity of greenhouse gases emitted by developed countries.

Answer: A

XXI. The International Law Commission holds an annual session in Geneva for a period of ten to twelve weeks. The subjects for consideration are partly chosen by the ILC itself, partly through recommendations by the General Assembly or the Economic and Social Council.

When the International Law Commission has completed a draft article, it is referred to the General Assembly for further action. The Assembly usually convenes a diplomatic conference of plenipotentiaries to incorporate it into multilateral agreements.

[Extracted from DagDok, International Law Commission]

101. The International Law Commission ordinarily holds its annual session at:

A. The Hague

B. New York

C. Geneva

D. Vienna

Answer: C

102. The annual session of the International Law Commission generally lasts for:

A. Four to six weeks

B. Six to eight weeks

C. Eight to ten weeks

D. Ten to twelve weeks

Answer: D

103. After the International Law Commission completes draft articles on a subject, they are ordinarily referred to:

A. The International Court of Justice

B. The Security Council

C. The General Assembly

D. The Economic and Social Council

Answer: C

104. Which of the following sequences correctly represents the process described in the passage?

A. General Assembly → ILC Draft Articles → ICJ Approval → Multilateral Treaty

B. ILC Draft Articles → General Assembly → Diplomatic Conference → Multilateral Agreement

C. ILC Draft Articles → Security Council → General Assembly → Treaty

D. ECOSOC → ICJ → ILC → Diplomatic Conference

Answer: B

105. Which of the following correctly describes the role of the General Assembly after receiving draft articles from the ILC?

A. It may take further action, including convening a diplomatic conference of plenipotentiaries.

B. It automatically converts the draft articles into binding international law.

C. It must refer the draft articles to the International Court of Justice.

D. It submits the draft articles to ECOSOC for final approval.

Answer: A

XXII. In the context of Muslim religious institutions, the Supreme Court has recognised that offices such as that of a Sajjadanashin or Mutawalli may devolve in accordance with the established customs of the institution, including nomination by the predecessor rather than strict rules of inheritance, as held in Syed Mohd. Salie Labbai (supra). Mulla: Principles of Mahomedan Law (20th Edition) in Chapter XII, provides for the same as under:

“In the absence of a direction in the wakfnama the succession to the office of sajjadanashin is regulated by custom. One custom is that the “bhek” or order i.e., an electoral body consisting of fakeers and murids, instal a competent person generally a son or nominee of the late sajjadanashin. In a case before the Privy Council the “bhek” delegated their power to elect a sajjadanashin and it was held that the appointment of the sajjadanashin made in this manner was valid.”

[Extracted from Syed Mohammed Ghouse Pasha Khadri v. Syed Mohammed Adil Pasha Khadri & Ors., 2026 INSC 438]

106. In the absence of a direction in the wakfnama, succession to the office of Sajjadanashin is primarily governed by:

A. Muslim law of inheritance

B. The rule of primogeniture

C. Custom of the institution

D. Election by the State Wakf Board

Answer: C

107. Under Muslim Law, a Mutawalli is best described as:

A. Owner of the waqf property

B. Trustee in the strict English law sense

C. Beneficiary of the wakf property

D. Manager or superintendent of the wakf property

Answer: C

108. In Md. Ismail v. Thakur Sabir Ali (1962), the Supreme Court held that in a waqf-alal-aulad:

A. Ownership of the waqf property vests in the descendants.

B. Ownership of the waqf property vests in the Mutawalli.

C. The property is dedicated to God, while only its usufruct is used for the benefit of the descendants.

D. The property remains vested in the waqif until the extinction of his descendants.

Answer: C

109. Assertion (A): Once a valid waqf has been created, the waqif ordinarily loses the power to revoke it.

Reason (R): The property is permanently dedicated and is deemed to vest in God.

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C. A is true, but R is false.

D. A is false, but R is true.

Answer: A

110. What is the primary objective of the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025?

A. To repeal the Waqf Act, 1995, entirely

B. To amend the Waqf Act, 1995, to address issues and challenges in regulating and managing Waqf properties

C. To abolish all State Waqf Boards

D. To transfer the management of Waqf properties exclusively to the Central Government

Answer: B

XXIII. The writ of mandamus is a prerogative remedy vested in constitutional courts under Articles 32 and 226 of the Constitution of India. In Union of India v. S.B. Vohra, this Court explained that mandamus lies where a legal right is established and a corresponding public duty, arising either from statute or otherwise, remains unperformed. The object of mandamus is to prevent a failure of justice, and it may be invoked in cases where no equally efficacious remedy exists and the ends of justice so demand.

…………The scheme of the law already incorporates adequate checks and balances to ensure that statutory duties are duly performed, and in cases of failure, provides for corrective mechanisms through supervisory and judicial intervention.

[Extracted from Ashwini Kumar Upadhyay v. Union of India & Ors., Writ Petition (Civil) No. 943 of 2021]

111. The writ of mandamus is described in the passage as:

A. An equitable remedy vested exclusively in civil courts

B. A prerogative remedy vested in constitutional courts

C. A statutory remedy available only against administrative tribunals

D. A discretionary remedy vested exclusively in the Supreme Court

Answer: B

112. In Union of India v. S.B. Vohra, the Supreme Court explained that mandamus lies where:

A. A legal right is established and a corresponding public duty remains unperformed.

B. A moral right exists and a private duty remains unperformed.

C. A fundamental right is violated by a private individual in every case.

D. An alternative remedy exists but has not been exhausted.

Answer: A

113. Article 50 of the Constitution forms part of:

A. Fundamental Rights

B. Directive Principles of State Policy

C. Fundamental Duties

D. Emergency Provisions

Answer: B

114. Consider the following statements:

1. The Indian Constitution does not adopt a rigid separation of powers.

2. Checks and balances permit constitutionally structured control by one organ over another.

3. Checks and balances authorise one organ to completely assume the essential functions of another organ.

4. Judicial review operates as an important constitutional check.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

115. Which of the following is the best example of the Executive exercising a check over the Legislature at the Union level?

A. Supreme Court striking down legislation

B. Lok Sabha passing a no-confidence motion

C. President withholding assent to a Bill, subject to constitutional limitations

D. Parliament removing a Supreme Court judge

Answer: C

XXIV. According to Salmond’s Pigeonhole Theory, the law of torts consists of specific and recognised torts, such as assault, battery, defamation, and malicious prosecution. A plaintiff can succeed only by proving that the wrongful act falls within one of these recognised categories or “pigeonholes.” If the act does not fit into any recognised tort, no liability arises merely because harm has been caused.

The theory promotes legal certainty, predictability, and consistency and prevents unlimited expansion of tortious liability. The burden lies on the plaintiff to establish the essential ingredients of a recognised tort.

Jenks supported the theory and clarified that it does not prevent the creation of new torts. New torts may develop through judicial precedent, provided they bear some resemblance to existing categories of torts.

[Tripathy et al., The Tree Analogy of Theory of Torts, IJIRT, Vol. 11, Issue 7]

116. Which jurist clarified that Salmond’s theory does not necessarily prevent the creation of new torts?

A. Winfield

B. Pollock

C. Jenks

D. Austin

Answer: C

117. Under Salmond’s Pigeonhole Theory, a plaintiff seeking to establish tortious liability must prove that:

A. The defendant acted dishonestly

B. The plaintiff suffered substantial damage

C. The defendant’s wrongful act falls within a recognised category of tort

D. The defendant violated a statutory duty

Answer: C

118. Assertion (A): Mere wrongful conduct is insufficient to establish liability under Salmond’s Pigeonhole Theory.

Reason (R): The plaintiff must establish that the defendant’s conduct satisfies the essential ingredients of a recognised tort.

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true, but R is false

D. A is false, but R is true

Answer: A

119. Consider the following statements regarding Jenks’ view:

1. Salmond’s Pigeonhole Theory does not necessarily create a closed system of tortious liability.

2. Courts may recognise new torts through judicial precedent.

3. Newly recognised torts should bear some resemblance to existing categories of torts.

4. Every novel injury must necessarily result in the creation of a new tort.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

120. By limiting liability to recognised categories of torts, the Pigeonhole Theory primarily seeks to:

A. Abolish judicial precedent.

B. Expand liability for every form of harm.

C. Maintain a structured and manageable scope of tortious liability.

D. Shift the entire burden of proof to the defendant.

Answer: C

Practice the CLAT PG Mock Legal Practice Questions – May 2026 and stay tuned to Legal Bites for monthly CLAT PG mock tests.

Important Link

Law Library: Notes and Study Material for LLB, LLM, Judiciary, and Entrance Exams

Read More