Legal Bites presents the CLAT UG Mock Legal Practice Questions – April 2026, thoughtfully curated to refine your preparation strategy and strengthen your legal aptitude for the upcoming examination. In preparing this mock test, we have tried to closely follow the CLAT UG 2026 pattern while ensuring coverage of all subjects relevant to the CLAT UG syllabus. The paper is designed to test reading comprehension, critical reasoning, and the ability to apply concepts across passages drawn from law, current affairs, history, economics, and social issues—mirroring the demands of the actual CLAT UG exam. Candidates are advised to attempt the mock in a time-bound manner, evaluate their answers carefully, and use the results to identify strengths, address gaps, and improve overall exam strategy.
CLAT UG Mock Legal Practice Questions
April 2026
SECTION I
I. Mahatma Gandhi began a fast in Yerawada Jail, Poona, to oppose the separate electorates granted to the Depressed Classes by the British Government. He strongly objected to the British policy of creating a division between Harijans and the larger Hindu community. The fast came to an end with the signing of the Poona Pact in 1932 between Gandhi and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. Under the agreement, separate electorates for the Depressed Classes were withdrawn and replaced with joint electorates. At the same time, the number of reserved seats for the Depressed Classes in the legislatures was increased from 71 to 148.
In the same year, the Third Round Table Conference was held in London without the participation of the Congress. The conference led to the preparation of a White Paper on the future constitutional framework of India, which was later submitted to the British Parliament. After receiving parliamentary approval, its provisions were incorporated into the Government of India Act, 1935.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from Nasirahmed M. Jangubhai, “The Gandhian Phase: Non-cooperation Movement Gandhian Era (1919–1947) Phase,” International Journal of Applied Research, Vol. 11, Issue 6, 2025, pp. 262–266, ISSN: 2394-7500]
1. Why did Mahatma Gandhi undertake a fast in Yerawada Jail in 1932?
A. To demand complete independence
B. To oppose separate electorates for the Depressed Classes
C. To protest against the Salt Tax
D. To support the Round Table Conference
Answer: B
2. The Poona Pact of 1932 was signed between:
A. Gandhi and Nehru
B. Ambedkar and Jinnah
C. Gandhi and Ambedkar
D. Gandhi and the Viceroy
Answer: C
3. Under the Poona Pact, the number of reserved seats for the Depressed Classes increased from:
A. 50 to 100
B. 71 to 148
C. 100 to 200
D. 148 to 200
Answer: B
4. The Government of India Act, 1935, was based largely on:
A. Cabinet Mission Plan
B. Nehru Report
C. Cripps Proposal
D. White Paper on the Indian Constitution
Answer: D
5. Arrange the following events in chronological order:
1. Government of India Act, 1935
2. Poona Pact
3. Third Round Table Conference
4. White Paper on the Indian Constitution
Options
A. 2, 3, 4, 1
B. 3, 2, 4, 1
C. 2, 4, 3, 1
D. 4, 2, 3, 1
Answer: A
II. The Neolithic period, or New Stone Age, is characterised by the beginning of a settled human lifestyle. People learned to cultivate plants and domesticate animals for food, rather than rely solely on hunting and gathering. That coincided with the use of more sophisticated stone tools, which were useful for farming and animal herding. In China, this period began around 7000 BCE and lasted until 1700 BCE.
It is traditionally believed that Chinese civilisation first emerged along the Yellow River and then spread to other parts of China. However, recent archaeological evidence suggests that a number of distinct cultures developed simultaneously across China, all along waterways. These cultures were located near the coastal areas, the Yellow River in the north, and the Yangzi River in the south. They are usually named after the site where remains of the culture were first discovered by modern archaeologists.
Neolithic people did not write. However, because they lived in settled communities, they left many traces behind, including the foundations of their houses, burial sites, tools, and crafts. We learn from the archaeological record that their diet included millet or rice, they domesticated pigs and dogs, and, as in all Neolithic cultures, there was extensive pottery production. Cultures in central China along the Yellow River were known for their painted pottery. Toward the late Neolithic period (ca. 5000–1700 BCE), fine gray and black pottery of elaborate forms were produced by cultures along the east and southeast coasts. The forms and decorative patterns of these pottery vessels continued to the Shang dynasty (ca. 1600–1050 BCE) and inspired the craftsmen of bronzes.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from Smithsonian’s National Museum of Asian Art, “Neolithic Period.]
6. What is the defining feature of the Neolithic (New Stone Age) period in China?
A. Development of iron tools
B. Beginning of settled human life with farming and animal domestication
C. Discovery of writing systems
D. Emergence of large empires
Answer: B
7. According to traditional belief, Chinese civilisation first emerged along the:
A. Yangzi River
B. Pearl River
C. Mekong River
D. Yellow River
Answer: D
8. Cultures along the Yellow River in central China were especially known for:
A. Bronze casting
B. Silk production
C. Painted pottery
D. Iron weapons
Answer: C
9. During the late Neolithic period, elaborate gray and black pottery was mainly produced by cultures along the:
A. Himalayan region
B. East and southeast coasts
C. Tibetan Plateau
D. Gobi Desert
Answer: B
10. The pottery styles of the late Neolithic period influenced craftsmen of which dynasty?
A. Qin Dynasty
B. Han Dynasty
C. Zhou Dynasty
D. Shang Dynasty
Answer: D
III. The composition of the Veda is attributed to families of ten rishis that have contributed to the curation of the majority of the lineage. These include the hymns from each clan as well as other religious text for rituals and customs. There are primarily two known schools of the text called as the Sakalya and the Baskala which include the Brahmanas and Upanishads.
The Rig Veda is an amalgamation of four major components. This includes the Samhitas, the Brahmanas, the Aryankas and the Upanishads.
The Samhitas are the texts involving the hymns to the deities and constitute the oldest section of the Rig Veda. The Brahmanas are the section pertaining to the commentaries for the hymns. This section is particularly referred to as the Rigveda Brahmana while the popular reference to Rig Veda, in general, is to the Samhitas. The Aryankas are also known as the forest books and the Upanishads include other verses of religious text.
The Veda is composed of ten Mandalas each of which serves significant purposes. The primary purpose is seen as hymns in the praise of the Hindu deities. There is a documentation of the stories of different Hindu gods and goddesses including Surya, Indra, Rudra, Vayu, Agni, Vishnu, and other Hindu deities. These are the oldest forms of documentation that form a foundation for the Hindu beliefs.
The stories within the Rig Veda called the Suktas were a reflection of the Hindu philosophy and belief system. They were used for ritualistic purposes in marriages and other religious ceremonies. There are other interesting iterations of the Suktas which were purposed to drive away illness and other forms of negativity from one‘s life.
[Extracted from Nikhil Chandwani, “Summarising the Knowledge in Rigveda,” The Times of India]
11. Which of the following is NOT one of the four major components of the Rig Veda?
A. Samhitas
B. Brahmanas
C. Upanishads
D. Puranas
Answer: D
12. The Aranyakas are commonly known as:
A. Temple Books
B. Forest Books
C. Ritual Books
D. Sacred Laws
Answer: B
13. The primary purpose of the Mandalas was to:
A. Record political events
B. Praise Hindu deities through hymns
C. Explain economic policies
D. Describe trade routes
Answer: B
14. Which of the following deities is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Indra
B. Agni
C. Varuna
D. Vishnu
Answer: C
15. The Suktas reflected:
A. Political administration
B. Trade and commerce
C. Hindu philosophy and belief system
D. Military strategy
Answer: C
IV. The dowry system imposes a substantial economic burden on the bride’s family. In many instances, families are compelled to sell property, exhaust savings, or incur heavy debts to satisfy the demands of the groom’s family. Such financial pressures often lead to long-term economic hardship and perpetuate cycles of poverty. Consequently, some families may hesitate to invest in the education or professional development of their daughters, viewing marriage as their primary objective rather than personal and economic empowerment.
Beyond its economic consequences, the dowry system has profound psychological effects on women. Many women experience feelings of inferiority and perceive themselves as burdens on their families. Failure to meet dowry expectations frequently results in harassment, domestic violence, emotional abuse, and, in extreme cases, dowry deaths. The constant fear of violence, abandonment, or social stigma can severely affect women’s mental well-being, leading to anxiety, depression, and post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
The dowry system remains a deeply entrenched social evil that reinforces gender inequality and places immense economic and emotional strain on women and their families. Addressing this issue requires a comprehensive approach involving legal enforcement, public awareness, education, and broader social reform. Empowering women through education, economic independence, and equal opportunities is essential for eliminating this discriminatory practice and fostering a more just and equitable society.
To combat the menace of dowry, the Indian government has enacted several laws and policy measures. The most significant among them is the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, which prohibits the giving, taking, or demanding of dowry and prescribes penalties for violations. Additionally, the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 provides legal protection and remedies to women subjected to domestic abuse, including harassment related to dowry demands. By recognising dowry-related abuse as a form of violence against women, these legal frameworks seek to safeguard women’s rights, ensure access to justice, and promote gender equality in society.
[Sushil Kumar, The Dowry Dilemma: Examining India’s Deep-Rooted Social Evil, Int’l J. Educ. Rev., L. & Soc. Sci. (IJERLAS)]
16. What is one of the major economic consequences of the dowry system?
A. Increased employment opportunities for women
B. Financial burden on the bride’s family
C. Reduction in marriage expenses
D. Growth of women’s entrepreneurship
Answer: B
17. Which legislation primarily prohibits the giving, taking, or demanding of dowry in India?
A. Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961
B. Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
C. Indian Succession Act, 1925
D. Special Marriage Act, 1954
Answer: A
18. Which of the following psychological effects of the dowry system is specifically mentioned in the passage?
A. Bipolar disorder
B. Schizophrenia
C. Anxiety and depression
D. Autism
Answer: C
19. Failure to meet dowry demands may lead to:
A. Better family relations
B. Economic prosperity
C. Harassment and domestic violence
D. Educational opportunities
Answer: C
20. Which constitutional value is most directly undermined by the dowry system?
A. Gender equality
B. Separation of powers
C. Federalism
D. Secularism
Answer: A
V. Menstruation is a natural biological process, yet it continues to be surrounded by myths, misconceptions, and social stigma in many parts of India, particularly in rural and tribal communities. Traditional beliefs often associate menstruation with impurity, leading to restrictions on women’s participation in religious, social, and household activities. These practices reinforce gender inequality and negatively affect women’s health, dignity, and well-being.
In recent years, menstrual health has received greater attention through government initiatives, awareness campaigns, and community-based interventions. Innovators such as Arunachalam Muruganantham improved access to affordable sanitary products, while organisations like Eco Femme, Goonj’s NJPC, and Anandi Pads have promoted menstrual education and women’s empowerment. The film Padman (2018) further helped bring menstrual health into mainstream public discussion.
Despite these positive developments, studies from various parts of India continue to show the persistence of menstrual taboos, inadequate awareness, and limited access to safe menstrual hygiene products. These challenges are particularly evident among marginalised rural and tribal populations, where cultural norms and low health literacy remain significant barriers. Assessing the reach and impact of recent interventions is therefore essential for advancing menstrual health, dignity, and gender equality.
[Aggarwal R., Keshari A., Gaur S., & Jakasania A., “Impact Assessment of Monthly Informal Health Awareness Sessions, as a Part of the Village Adoption Scheme on the Knowledge, Attitude and Practices of Menstrual Health and Hygiene, in Young Women, Over Three Years in a Rural Setting in Central Maharashtra,” Indian Journal of Public Health Research and Development, Vol. 17, No. 1, January–March 2026]
21. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a restriction imposed on menstruating women?
A. Cooking food
B. Religious participation
C. Bathing
D. Voting in elections
Answer: D
22. The film Padman (2018) is mentioned in the passage because it:
A. Criticised government policies
B. Reduced the cost of sanitary pads
C. Encouraged public discussion on menstrual health
D. Introduced new menstrual products
Answer: C
23. Which of the following organisations is associated with menstrual health awareness according to the passage?
A. ISRO
B. Eco Femme
C. NITI Aayog
D. SEBI
Answer: B
24. The passage suggests that menstrual taboos contribute to:
A. Negative health outcomes and psychosocial stress
B. Gender equality
C. Improved public health
D. Increased educational opportunities
Answer: A
SECTION II
VI. The Supreme Court, primarily responsible for constitutional interpretation and matters of urgent criminal appeals, is burdened with more than 3,500 public interest litigations (PILs), 698 of them pending for over 10 years. The oldest one has not been adjudicated for 42 years. Most of these PILs are related to environmental, land laws and agricultural tenancy matters, according to information shared by the law ministry.
The highest number of PILs — 570 — were admitted by the constitutional court in 2025, further clogging the SC’s docket of over 80,000 cases. In the last five years SC has managed to dispose of 1,872 PILs, but not enough to clear the backlog.
Law minister Arjun Ram Meghwal informed Lok Sabha last week that the total number of PILs pending before SC as on March 10 are 3,525. The average time taken for disposal of PILs is not known. Meghwal said the highest number of pending PILs filed since 2014 include 570 filed in 2025, followed by 347 in 2019, 306 in 2020 and 293 in 2026 among others.
[Extracted from the newspaper, The Times of India, March 17, 2026]
25. Which of the following categories account for most of the pending PILs mentioned in the passage?
A. Constitutional amendments and taxation
B. Environmental, land laws, and agricultural tenancy matters
C. Criminal appeals and family disputes
D. Intellectual property and cyber law matters
Answer: B
26. Which constitutional objective is most closely associated with Public Interest Litigation?
A. Promoting access to justice
B. Conducting elections
C. Levying taxes
D. Regulating foreign trade
Answer: A
27. The data regarding PIL pendency was shared in which House of Parliament?
A. Rajya Sabha
B. Lok Sabha
C. Joint Sitting of Parliament
D. Parliamentary Committee
Answer: B
28. The oldest pending PIL before the Supreme Court has remained undecided for approximately:
A. 25 years
B. 30 years
C. 35 years
D. 42 years
Answer: D
29. Who informed the Lok Sabha about the number of pending PILs in the Supreme Court?
A. Amit Shah
B. Kiren Rijiju
C. Arjun Ram Meghwal
D. Piyush Goyal
Answer: C
VII. The Delhi HC that a special court’s observations made against witnesses and approvers in the liquor policy case while discharging ex-CM Arvind Kejriwal, Manish Sisodia, and others appear “prima facie erroneous”. Justice Sharma said she is “of the opinion that certain factual discrepancies pointed out in the impugned order, the observations made by the trial court regarding statements of the witnesses and the approvers, at the stage of charge itself, prima facie appear erroneous, and need consideration when viewed in the background of well-settled law on charge and conspiracy, as to whether such observations could have been made at the stage of charge itself.
[Extracted from the newspaper, The Times of India, March 10, 2026]
30. What does the term prima facie mean in legal parlance?
A. Finally proven beyond doubt
B. At first sight or on initial examination
C. Based on public opinion
D. Legally unenforceable
Answer: B
31. The observations were made in connection with which case?
A. Coal Allocation Case
B. 2G Spectrum Case
C. Liquor Policy Case
D. Hawala Case
Answer: C
32. Who were among those discharged by the special court?
A. Narendra Modi and Amit Shah
B. Arvind Kejriwal and Manish Sisodia
C. Rahul Gandhi and Priyanka Gandhi
D. Hemant Soren and Tejashwi Yadav
Answer: B
33. The observations in question were made during which stage of the criminal proceedings?
A. Stage of charge
B. Sentencing stage
C. Trial stage
D. Appeal stage
Answer: A
34. Which of the following best reflects the Delhi High Court’s concern?
A. The trial court imposed an excessive sentence.
B. The investigation was incomplete.
C. The trial court may have made detailed findings on witness credibility too early in the proceedings.
D. The accused were denied legal representation.
Answer: C
VIII. A measles outbreak has spread across Bangladesh, with at least 21 child deaths reported in March amid rising infections in multiple districts. Health officials say the outbreak is affecting areas including Dhaka, Mymensingh, Rajshahi, Chattogram, Jashore, Pabna and Natore, with additional cases reported from several other regions.
According to the Directorate General of Health Services, measles is present nationwide, though case numbers are significantly higher in certain districts. Hospitals in the capital are struggling to cope with the surge.
Health experts warn that gaps in vaccination coverage are a key driver of the outbreak. Bangladesh has not conducted a nationwide measles-rubella campaign since 2020, and shortages in vaccine supply and field-level health workers have left many children unprotected.
Measles is highly contagious, with one infected person capable of transmitting the virus to 15-18 others. Doctors report that even children under nine months-below the vaccination age-are being infected.
[Extracted from News on Air, “Bangladesh: Measles outbreak claims 21 children in March”, March 29, 2026]
35. Which government body reported that measles is present nationwide in Bangladesh?
A. Ministry of Education
B. Directorate General of Health Services
C. National Disease Control Authority
D. Bangladesh Medical Council
Answer: B
36. Which of the following districts is NOT mentioned as being significantly affected by the outbreak?
A. Dhaka
B. Rajshahi
C. Sylhet
D. Jashore
Answer: C
37. What is identified as a major reason for the outbreak?
A. Climate change
B. Water contamination
C. Poor nutrition
D. Gaps in vaccination coverage
Answer: D
38. Measles is described in the passage as:
A. Water-borne disease
B. Vector-borne disease
C. Highly contagious disease
D. Genetic disorder
Answer: C
39. One infected person can transmit measles to approximately:
A. 2–5 people
B. 5–10 people
C. 10–12 people
D. 15–18 people
Answer: D
40. The central theme of the passage is:
A. Urbanisation in Bangladesh
B. Challenges in hospital management
C. Measles outbreak and vaccination gaps
D. Child nutrition policies
Answer: C
IX. Women’s wellbeing is central to family and community welfare. Yet the challenges women face are not always visible. Beyond health concerns, everyday responsibilities such as walking long distances to fetch water, cooking with smoke-filled chulhas, or managing sanitation needs often place an unseen physical and emotional burden on them. Addressing these everyday realities has therefore become an important dimension of policy support.
Maternal health and nutrition remain a key focus. Under the Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana, over ₹20,060 crore has been transferred to 4.26 crore beneficiaries, providing income support during maternity. Initiatives such as the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan and Poshan Abhiyan further strengthen maternal care and nutrition services nationwide. These sustained efforts have contributed to a decline in India’s Maternal Mortality Ratio from 130 (2014–16) to 88 (2021–23).
Access to clean energy and essential household services has also significantly improved women’s health and dignity. Under the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana, more than 10.56 crore LPG connections have been provided to women from economically vulnerable households, reducing exposure to indoor air pollution and easing the daily burden of cooking.
Similarly, improved access to water and sanitation is transforming everyday life. Since its launch in August 2019, the Jal Jeevan Mission (Har Ghar Jal) has expanded rural tap water coverage from 16.72% to over 81.57% of households, reducing the time and effort women often spent fetching water. Complementing this, the Swachh Bharat Mission has enabled the construction of over 12 crore toilets, improving sanitation, enhancing privacy and dignity for women, and contributing to better public health outcomes.
[Excerpts from the Press Information Bureau (PIB), “International Women’s Day 2026: Nari Shakti as the Foundation of Viksit Bharat”, Government of India, 7 March 2026]
41. Which scheme provides income support to women during maternity?
A. Poshan Abhiyan
B. Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana
C. Jal Jeevan Mission
D. Swachh Bharat Mission
Answer: B
42. According to the passage, how much amount has been transferred under the Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana?
A. ₹10,060 crore
B. ₹15,060 crore
C. ₹20,060 crore
D. ₹25,060 crore
Answer: C
43. Which two initiatives are specifically mentioned as strengthening maternal care and nutrition services?
A. Ujjwala Yojana and Jal Jeevan Mission
B. Poshan Abhiyan and PM Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan
C. Swachh Bharat Mission and Poshan Abhiyan
D. PMAY and Poshan Abhiyan
Answer: B
44. The Jal Jeevan Mission was launched in:
A. August 2019
B. August 2018
C. January 2020
D. October 2019
Answer: A
45. The construction of over 12 crore toilets has been achieved under:
A. Poshan Abhiyan
B. Jal Jeevan Mission
C. Swachh Bharat Mission
D. PMMVY
Answer: C
46. The passage suggests that women’s health is affected not only by medical issues but also by:
A. Foreign policy decisions
B. Taxation policies
C. Electoral participation
D. Everyday household responsibilities
Answer: D
X. With the aim to meet industry demand, drive digital transformation, and build workforce readiness for Industry 4.0 and the futuristic skills, initiatives such as PMKVY 3.0 and 4.0 have introduced specialised short-term and advanced modules focused on new-age technologies like Artificial Intelligence (AI), Robotics, drone and others. Digital skill training under PMKVY is delivered through a network of training infrastructure such as Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Kendras (PMKKs), Industrial Training Institutes (ITIs), Skill Hubs and other training centres onboarded on SIDH. Digital and emerging technology courses are offered through these approved centres in accordance with scheme guidelines and aligned to the National Skills Qualifications Framework (NSQF).
Further, the Government is working with States/UTs to strengthen the use of existing infrastructure such as Government ITIs, schools, colleges and Skill Hubs for delivery of digital skilling by enabling broadband connectivity, setting up digital laboratories and providing access to online learning resources through platforms such as SIDH. District Skill Committees prepare District Skill Development Plans which identify gaps in digital infrastructure and prioritise locations in aspirational, hilly and border districts for additional centres and equipment support.
The Directorate General of Training (DGT) has developed 169 National Skills Qualifications Framework (NSQF)-compliant courses, including 19 courses in the IT & ITeS sector, aimed at equipping youth across the country with digital technology skills.
Under CTS, training in 31 new-age courses such as Artificial Intelligence, Industrial Robotics, AI, and Drone, etc., for skilling and upskilling of youth of the country is conducted through a network of Industrial Training Institutes (ITIs) and National Skill Training Institutes (NSTIs).
DGT has collaborated with entities including IBM India, Microsoft, Cisco, Adobe India, Amazon Web Services (AWS), Future Right Skills Network (FRSN), Edunet Foundation, Auto Desk etc, for skilling initiatives under Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR). These partnerships facilitate the provision of technical and professional skill training in modern technologies.
[Excerpts from the Press Information Bureau (PIB), Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, “Promoting Digitalisation and Enhancing Skill Development”, Government of India, 16 March 2026.]
47. What is the primary objective of initiatives such as PMKVY 3.0 and PMKVY 4.0?
A. Promoting agricultural exports
B. Building workforce readiness for Industry 4.0 and future skills
C. Increasing foreign direct investment
D. Expanding traditional handicrafts
Answer: B
47. Which of the following technologies is specifically mentioned in PMKVY 3.0 and 4.0 training modules?
A. Blockchain only
B. Artificial Intelligence and Robotics
C. Nuclear Technology
D. Space Science
Answer: B
48. Who prepares the District Skill Development Plans?
A. NITI Aayog
B. State Legislatures
C. District Skill Committees
D. Parliament
Answer: C
49. How many NSQF-compliant courses have been developed by the Directorate General of Training (DGT)?
A. 169
B. 119
C. 219
D. 269
Answer: A
50. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a new-age course under CTS?
A. Artificial Intelligence
B. Industrial Robotics
C. Drone Technology
D. Marine Biology
Answer: D
51. Which of the following companies is NOT mentioned in the passage as a DGT partner?
A. Cisco
B. Adobe India
C. Amazon Web Services (AWS)
D. Google India
Answer: D
52. Broadband connectivity, digital laboratories, and online learning resources are intended to support:
A. Digital skilling initiatives
B. Agricultural reforms
C. Judicial reforms
D. Tax administration
Answer: A
SECTION III
Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is mandated to lay down science-based standards for articles of food and to regulate their manufacture, storage, distribution, sale and import to ensure availability of safe and wholesome food for human consumption. The implementation and enforcement of the Food Safety and Standards (FSS) Act, 2006 is a shared responsibility between the Central and State Governments.
While the FSSAI, is responsible for laying down science-based standards and ensuring overall coordination, the State Food Safety Authorities are primarily responsible for enforcement at the field level. Designated officers (DOs) and Food Safety Officers (FSOs) under the Commissioner of Food Safety in the States/UTs are entrusted with the responsibility of enforcing the provisions of FSS Act, 2006.
Surveillance drives, monitoring, regulatory inspection and random sampling of various food products including milk, ghee, spices, honey, paneer and other foods conducted throughout the year by the officials of Food Safety Departments of the respective States/UTs and Regional Offices of FSSAI to check compliance with the quality and safety parameters and other requirements as laid down under Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, and Regulations made thereunder. Over the last three years (2022–23 to 2024–25), a total of 5,18,559 samples were analyzed. During this period, 88,192 cases were decided with penalties, 3,614 cases resulted in convictions, and 1,161 licenses were cancelled.
FSSAI has also developed Risk Based Inspection System (RBIS) where frequency of inspection is decided based on risk associated with Food businesses and issued guidelines. Annual inspections are to be conducted for all food categories identified as high risk. Total number of Risk Based Inspections done in last three years (2022-23 to 2024-25) are 56,259.
[Excerpts from the Press Information Bureau (PIB), Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, “Steps Taken to Curb Adulteration in Food Items”, Government of India, 17 March 2026].
53. Which authority is primarily responsible for enforcement of food safety laws at the field level?
A. FSSAI Headquarters
B. Ministry of Health
C. State Food Safety Authorities
D. NITI Aayog
Answer: C
54. The implementation and enforcement of the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 is the responsibility of:
A. Only the Central Government
B. Only the State Governments
C. Municipal Corporations
D. Both Central and State Governments
Answer: D
55. During 2022–23 to 2024–25, how many food samples were analysed?
A. 3,614
B. 88,192
C. 5,18,559
D. 56,259
Answer: C
56. According to RBIS guidelines, annual inspections are mandatory for:
A. All food businesses
B. High-risk food categories
C. Exporters only
D. Importers only
Answer: B
57. Which of the following is NOT a function of FSSAI?
A. Directly enforcing food laws across all districts
B. Coordinating food safety measures
C. Laying down food standards
D. Regulating food imports
Answer: A
58. Under the FSS Act, enforcement in States/UTs is carried out by Designated Officers and Food Safety Officers under the:
A. District Magistrate
B. Commissioner of Food Safety
C. Chief Secretary
D. Health Minister
Answer: B
XII. The concept of Indian citizenship did not exist before 26 November 1949, when the Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution of India and simultaneously brought into force the provisions relating to citizenship. At that time, British India was under the sovereignty of the British Crown, and its inhabitants were regarded as British subjects. Their nationality and citizenship rights were governed by the British Nationality Acts enacted by the Parliament of the United Kingdom from time to time. The fundamental principle of British nationality law was that every person born within British territory automatically acquired the status of a British subject by birth.
The Indian princely states, however, were not part of British territory. Consequently, their inhabitants were not considered British subjects. As these states lacked an independent international personality, their subjects were treated as British protected persons under international law.
The British Nationality and Status of Aliens Act, 1914, subsequently amended in 1918, 1922, 1933, and 1943, established the framework governing British nationality. While it recognised a common British nationality throughout the Empire, it also permitted differential treatment of various classes of British subjects, particularly in matters relating to immigration. Furthermore, it allowed the legislatures of individual British possessions to confer local nationality within their respective jurisdictions.
In India, immigration and residence were regulated by statutes such as the Immigration into India Act, 1924, and later the Reciprocity Act, 1943. These laws authorised the Government of India to control the entry and residence of British subjects coming from other parts of the British Empire on the basis of reciprocity. Similarly, the Indian Naturalisation Act, 1926, governed local naturalisation and enabled certain foreign nationals to acquire naturalised status in India, subject to specific restrictions. Nevertheless, despite these local variations, the overarching principle remained that all subjects of the British Crown shared a common British nationality across the Empire and the Commonwealth.
[Extracted with edits and revision from B Shiva Rao’s-Framing of India’s Constitution]
59. The Indian princely states were not considered part of:
A. The British Empire
B. The Commonwealth
C. British territory
D. South Asia
Answer: C
60. The British Nationality and Status of Aliens Act recognised:
A. Separate citizenship for each colony
B. A common British nationality across the Empire
C. Indian citizenship within the Empire
D. Dual citizenship for all subjects
Answer: B
61. Consider the following statements:
1. British India was under the sovereignty of the British Crown.
2. The inhabitants of princely states were treated as British subjects.
3. The Constitution’s citizenship provisions came into force on 26 November 1949.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3 only
Answer: D
62. The Reciprocity Act, 1943 empowered the Government of India to regulate:
A. Trade within provinces
B. Election procedures
C. Entry and residence of British subjects on the basis of reciprocity
D. Naturalisation of Indian citizens
Answer: C
63. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Immigration into India Act, 1924
B. Reciprocity Act, 1943
C. Indian Naturalisation Act, 1926
D. Government of India Act, 1935
Answer: D
64. Which law regulated immigration and residence in India during the British period?
A. Indian Citizenship Act, 1955
B. Immigration into India Act, 1924
C. Government of India Act, 1935
D. Indian Independence Act, 1947
Answer: B
XIII. Congregating for prayer is a facet of the Abrahamic faiths. The Jews congregate in synagogues for Shabbath on Friday, and Saturday is a faith ordained day of rest and spiritual reflection. The Christians congregate in churches for Sunday mass and the muslims congregate in mosques for the Friday afternoon prayer. Eastern faiths like Hinduism, Buddhism by contrast don’t have fixed days for community congregations for worship in temples and the community congregates for celebration (which includes worship) of festivals. Article 25 protects the right to congregate for worship to every religious denomination in this country but the same does not protect such acts and utterances which are devoid of the primary purpose of the congregation, which is prayer. By no stretch of imagination does Article 25 accord protection to incitement of one faith by the other in the garb of prayer and that must be borne in mind by the adherents of all faiths/religions.
[Extract from the Allahabad High Court Judgment Munazir Khan v. State of U.P. & Ors. (2026)]
65. According to the passage, congregational prayer is a characteristic feature primarily associated with which religions?
A. Hinduism and Buddhism
B. Abrahamic faiths
C. Sikhism and Jainism
D. All religions equally
Answer: B
66. Jews traditionally congregate in synagogues for Shabbath on:
A. Thursday and Friday
B. Friday and Saturday
C. Saturday and Sunday
D. Sunday only
Answer: B
67. Which day is described as a faith-ordained day of rest and spiritual reflection for Jews?
A. Friday
B. Sunday
C. Saturday
D. Monday
Answer: C
68. Christians generally congregate for Sunday Mass in:
A. Temples
B. Mosques
C. Synagogues
D. Churches
Answer: D
69. Which constitutional provision is discussed in the passage?
A. Article 14
B. Article 19
C. Article 21
D. Article 25
Answer: D
70. Muslims congregate in mosques primarily for:
A. Daily evening prayer
B. Friday afternoon prayer
C. Saturday prayer
D. Monthly prayer gathering
Answer: B
XIV. In a landmark decision, the Supreme Court of India has, for the first time, permitted the withdrawal of artificial life support in a case of passive euthanasia. The Court allowed the withdrawal of life-sustaining treatment for a 32-year-old man who has remained in a comatose state for over twelve years.
Passive euthanasia refers to the intentional withholding or withdrawal of medical treatment or life support necessary to sustain a patient’s life, thereby allowing the patient to die naturally.
The case concerned Harish Rana, a resident of Ghaziabad and a former student of Panjab University. In 2013, Rana suffered severe head injuries after falling from the fourth floor of his paying guest accommodation. Since then, he has remained in a persistent comatose condition.
A Bench comprising Justices J.B. Pardiwala and K.V. Viswanathan directed the All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), New Delhi, to admit Rana to its palliative care facility, where the process of withdrawing medical support can be undertaken. The Court emphasised that the withdrawal of treatment must be carried out through a carefully tailored plan to ensure that the patient’s dignity is preserved throughout the process.
The order is in consonance with the Supreme Court’s landmark decision in the 2018 Common Cause v. Union of India case, which was subsequently modified in 2023. In the 2018 judgment, a Constitution Bench recognised the right to die with dignity as an integral part of the right to life guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution. The Court also legally recognised passive euthanasia and held that it could be implemented through Advance Medical Directives (Living Wills) under prescribed safeguards.
[Excerpts with edits & revisions from “In a First, SC Allows Passive Euthanasia for Man in Coma in First-Ever Order of Its Kind,” News Services Division, Akashvani (News on AIR), Government of India, 11 March 2026.]
71. What is passive euthanasia?
A. Actively administering a lethal injection
B. Assisting a person in committing suicide
C. Withholding or withdrawing life support necessary to sustain life
D. Providing pain-relieving medication only
Answer: C
72. The Supreme Court recently allowed passive euthanasia in the case of:
A. Aruna Shanbaug
B. Harish Rana
C. Common Cause
D. Gian Kaur
Answer: B
73. Which institution was directed by the Supreme Court to admit Harish Rana for palliative care?
A. PGIMER Chandigarh
B. Safdarjung Hospital
C. AIIMS Delhi
D. RML Hospital
Answer: C
74. An Advance Medical Directive is commonly known as a:
A. Habeas Corpus
B. Living Will
C. Medical Certificate
D. Health Insurance Policy
Answer: B
75. Assertion (A): The Supreme Court has recognised passive euthanasia in India.
Reason (R): Passive euthanasia involves withdrawing life-support treatment under prescribed safeguards.
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true, but R is false.
D. A is false, but R is true.
Answer: A
76. The Court’s direction to AIIMS to provide palliative care before withdrawal of treatment indicates that:
A. The objective is not to hasten death but to ensure a dignified process.
B. Passive euthanasia and active euthanasia are identical.
C. Courts may directly administer medical treatment.
D. Palliative care is constitutionally mandatory in all cases.
Answer: A
XV. Our national and regional calendars are replete with observances reflecting our rich pluralism. The expansion of the list of gazetted holidays is a matter of administrative calibration, and any indiscriminate addition would adversely impact governance and public productivity. As a developing nation, the focus must remain on the dignity of labour and the continuity of work. Any judicial mandate to increase non-working days involves a line-drawing exercise that is inherently policy-driven and not amenable to judicial determination.
[Extracted from All India Shiromani Singh Sabha v. Union of India & Others (2026)]
77. According to the passage, the national and regional calendars of India reflect:
A. Economic priorities
B. Administrative efficiency
C. Rich pluralism
D. Judicial activism
Answer: C
78. The Supreme Court observed that the expansion of gazetted holidays is primarily a matter of:
A. Judicial review
B. Administrative calibration
C. Fundamental rights enforcement
D. Legislative compulsion
Answer: B
79. Why does the passage caution against indiscriminate addition of gazetted holidays?
A. It violates secularism.
B. It increases government expenditure.
C. It adversely impacts governance and public productivity.
D. It discourages tourism.
Answer: C
80. The passage suggests that courts should generally avoid deciding issues that are:
A. Related to elections
B. Policy-oriented and administrative in nature
C. Concerning fundamental rights
D. Related to criminal law
Answer: B
81. Which of the following can be logically inferred from the passage?
A. Every religious observance must be declared a gazetted holiday.
B. Courts have unlimited power to create public holidays.
C. The executive is better placed to determine the number of public holidays.
D. Public productivity is irrelevant in policymaking.
Answer: C
82. As per the passage, a developing nation should primarily focus on:
A. Dignity of labour and continuity of work
B. Cultural celebrations
C. Increasing public holidays
D. Judicial intervention in policy matters
Answer: A
SECTION IV
XVI. In a language activity, students were given the word “PARLIAMENT”. The teacher asked them to follow certain steps carefully. First, they had to take the first five letters of the word and reverse their order. Then, they had to write the remaining letters in the same order as they appeared in the original word. Finally, they had to add the letter “S” at the end of the new arrangement.
83. What is the final arrangement formed after following all the steps?
A. ILRAPMENTS
B. ILRAPAMENTS
C. ILPARAMENTS
D. ILRAPAMNTS
Answer: B
84. Which letter is third from the left in the final arrangement?
A. L
B. R
C. A
D. P
Answer: B
85. Which letter is fourth from the right in the final arrangement?
A. E
B. N
C. T
D. M
Answer: A
86. How many vowels are present in the final arrangement?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: B
87. How many consonants are present in the final arrangement?
A. 6
B. 9
C. 8
D. 7
Answer: D
88. Which letter comes immediately after the second vowel?
A. P
B. M
C. E
D. N
Answer: A
XVIII. On the evening of July 18, the prestigious “Emerald Crown” disappeared from a locked vault at the Royal Heritage Gallery. The theft occurred sometime between 8:00 PM, when the gallery closed, and 11:00 PM, when the security supervisor conducted his final inspection.
Three former employees became suspects:
Rohan, the former vault manager, who knew the confidential six-digit vault code.
Meera, the former surveillance officer, who had expertise in disabling cameras.
Kabir, the former event coordinator, who frequently worked late in the gallery.
The investigation established the following facts:
- Electronic records showed that the vault was opened using the correct six-digit code. No signs of forced entry were found.
- Rohan claimed he was attending a family dinner from 7:30 PM to 11:30 PM. Several relatives confirmed his presence, but none could account for him continuously throughout the evening.
- Meera claimed she was at a cinema. Ticket records confirmed she entered the theatre at 8:15 PM, but there was no evidence regarding whether she remained inside for the entire movie.
- Kabir was attending a business seminar. Digital attendance logs and video recordings showed he was present there from 7:00 PM until 11:15 PM without interruption.
- A pair of gloves was discovered near the vault. Similar gloves were commonly used by all gallery employees.
- Investigators found no evidence that the camera system had been tampered with.
89. Based solely on the fact that the vault was opened using the correct six-digit code and there was no evidence of tampering, who is the most plausible suspect?
A. Rohan
B. Meera
C. Kabir
D. The security supervisor
Answer: A
90. Which suspect has the strongest verified alibi?
A. Rohan
B. Meera
C. Kabir
D. None of them
Answer: C
91. If investigators conclude that the camera system functioned normally throughout the evening, whose alleged expertise becomes less relevant?
A. Rohan
B. Meera
C. Kabir
D. The security supervisor
Answer: B
92. Which of the following can be logically inferred from the passage?
A. Rohan definitely stole the crown.
B. Meera definitely left the cinema.
C. Kabir could not have committed the theft during the relevant period.
D. The security supervisor is the thief.
Answer: C
93. What is the primary reason that Meera remains a suspect?
A. She knew the vault code.
B. Her whereabouts are not fully verified during the relevant period.
C. She was seen near the gallery.
D. She confessed to the theft.
Answer: B
94. Suppose investigators later discover that the vault code had never been shared with anyone except Rohan. Which conclusion becomes stronger?
A. Meera is innocent.
B. Kabir is guilty.
C. Rohan’s involvement becomes more likely.
D. The security supervisor stole the crown.
Answer: C
95. Which statement, if true, would most weaken the case against Rohan?
A. Rohan owned several pairs of gloves.
B. The vault code had been changed a week before the theft without informing him.
C. Rohan once worked in the gallery.
D. Rohan had financial difficulties.
Answer: B
XIX. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
A school organised a science exhibition. Five students—Ankit, Bhavna, Chetan, Divya, and Esha—presented different projects. Ankit presented a model on solar energy. Bhavna’s project was on water conservation. Chetan displayed a robot that could sort waste. Divya demonstrated a rainwater harvesting system. Esha presented a project on electric vehicles. The judges appreciated all the projects for their innovation and practical usefulness.
96. Who presented a model on solar energy?
A. Bhavna
B. Divya
C. Ankit
D. Esha
Answer: C
97. Which project was presented by Bhavna?
A. Electric vehicles
B. Water conservation
C. Solar energy
D. Robotics
Answer: B
98. What was the main function of Chetan’s robot?
A. Generate electricity
B. Harvest rainwater
C. Sort waste
D. Purify water
Answer: C
99. Who demonstrated a rainwater harvesting system?
A. Divya
B. Esha
C. Ankit
D. Bhavna
Answer: A
100. Which student presented a project on electric vehicles?
A. Divya
B. Chetan
C. Esha
D. Ankit
Answer: C
101. The word “innovation” in the passage most nearly means:
A. Tradition
B. Delay
C. New ideas and creativity
D. Competition
Answer: C
102. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Esha presented a robot.
B. Bhavna worked on solar energy.
C. Ankit worked on electric vehicles.
D. Divya demonstrated rainwater harvesting.
Answer: D
XX. In a school activity, students created a secret code to describe family relationships. They agreed that:
- P # Q means P is the mother of Q
- P @ Q means P is the father of Q
- P % Q means P is the sister of Q
- P & Q means P is the brother of Q
One day, Aarav wrote “M @ N # O”. This meant that M was the father of N and N was the mother of O. Therefore, M became the grandfather of O. Later, Siya wrote “P % Q @ R”, showing that P was the sister of Q and Q was the father of R. The students enjoyed solving such family puzzles and soon became experts at identifying relationships through symbols. They discovered that a few symbols could explain even complex family connections. [165 words]
103. What does the expression A @ B represent?
A. A is the mother of B
B. A is the father of B
C. A is the brother of B
D. A is the sister of B
Answer: B
104. If X # Y @ Z, what is X’s relation to Z?
A. Grandmother
B. Mother
C. Sister
D. Daughter
Answer: A
105. If K @ L # M, then K is the:
A. Grandfather of M
B. Father of M
C. Brother of M
D. Uncle of M
Answer: A
106. If P % Q @ R, how is P related to R?
A. Aunt
B. Mother
C. Sister
D. Grandmother
Answer: A
107. If A & B # C, then A is the:
A. Father of C
B. Uncle of C
C. Brother of C
D. Grandfather of C
Answer: B
108. If D @ E % F, then E is:
A. Brother of F
B. Sister of F
C. Mother of F
D. Daughter of F
Answer: B
XX. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Amid recent developments in West Asia, the Government of India adopted a multi-pronged strategy to ensure adequate fertilizer availability before the Kharif 2026 season. The Department of Fertilizers increased domestic production and strengthened global procurement mechanisms. One major step was the successful conclusion of EPMC bidding for natural gas, which secured an additional 7.31 MMSCMD of gas on a spot basis. As a result, total gas supply to Urea plants increased from 32 MMSCMD to 39.31 MMSCMD, representing a rise of approximately 23%.
This increase in gas availability is expected to boost domestic Urea production from 54,500 MT per day to 67,000 MT per day. The fulfillment of gas requirements for Urea plants also improved significantly, rising from 62% to 76% of average needs. In addition, the government reported stronger fertilizer stocks than the previous year, with Urea stocks reaching 61.14 lakh metric tonnes (LMT), compared to 55.22 LMT during the corresponding period in 2025.
109. The additional gas secured through EPMC bidding amounted to:
A. 5.31 MMSCMD
B. 6.31 MMSCMD
C. 7.31 MMSCMD
D. 8.31 MMSCMD
Answer: C
110. By what percentage did the total gas supply to Urea plants increase?
A. 15%
B. 20%
C. 23%
D. 30%
Answer: C
111. According to the passage, domestic Urea production is expected to rise from:
A. 45,500 MT/day to 67,000 MT/day
B. 54,500 MT/day to 67,000 MT/day
C. 54,500 MT/day to 70,000 MT/day
D. 50,000 MT/day to 67,000 MT/day
Answer: B
112. The fulfillment of gas requirements for Urea plants improved from:
A. 50% to 76%
B. 62% to 76%
C. 62% to 82%
D. 55% to 76%
Answer: B
113. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. India is entirely self-sufficient in fertilizer production.
B. Domestic production and imports are both important for fertilizer security.
C. Fertilizer demand has declined significantly.
D. The government plans to discontinue gas procurement.
Answer: B
114. If the price of a commodity rises from ₹500 to ₹615, the percentage increase is:
A. 20%
B. 22%
C. 23%
D. 25%
Answer: C
115. According to the passage, domestic Urea production is expected to increase from:
A. 54,500 MT/day to 67,000 MT/day
B. 55,000 MT/day to 65,000 MT/day
C. 60,000 MT/day to 67,000 MT/day
D. 54,500 MT/day to 70,000 MT/day
Answer: A
XXI. As per the latest estimates of GVA released by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoS&PI), the composition of Agriculture & Allied Sector in total GVA is about 18%. Further, as per the National Accounts Statistics, the GVA of agriculture and Allied sector for 2014-15 is estimated at Rs. 20,93,612 Crore and for 2023-24 it is estimated at Rs. 48,77,867 Crore. Agriculture and Allied sector has recorded compound annual growth of 8.83 % for the period 2014-15 to 2023-24 at current prices.
As per the National Accounts Statistics, the share of Livestock, Crops and fishing & aquaculture in agriculture & allied sector stands at 30.87%, 54.39% and 7.55%, respectively. The GVA of the Livestock for 2014-15 was estimated at ₹5,10,411 crore which has increased to ₹15,05,615 crore in 2023-24. The GVA of Crops for 2014-15 was estimated at ₹12,92,874 crore which has increased to ₹26,52,891 crore in 2023-24 Similarly, the GVA of the Fishing & Aquaculture has increased from ₹11,65,67 crore in 2014-15 to ₹36,81,24 crore in 2023-24.
The production of foodgrain has been increasing during the last 10 years in the country. For 2015-16 the total foodgrain production in the country was estimated at 2515.42 LMT which has increased to 3577.32 LMT during 2024-25, registering a compound annual growth of approx. 3.6%. Further, as per First advance estimates for 2025-26 for kharif crops the kharif foodgrain production is estimated at record 1733.30 LMT.
As per the Second Advance Estimates of Annual GDP for 2025-26, the GVA of Agriculture & Allied Sector is estimated at 52,08,800 crore registering a growth of 2.4%.
The average monthly income of agricultural households in the country is periodically estimated through the “Situation Assessment Survey (SAS) if Agricultural Household”, conducted by National Statistics Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme implementation (MoSPI).
As per the latest NSS 77th round of Survey( January, 2019 – December, 2019) in the rural areas of the country, the average monthly income per agricultural household from various sources including crop production, farming of animals, wages, non-farm business and leasing out of land is estimated at Rs. 10,218/- per month. The contribution of these sources varies across States depending on local agro-climatic conditions, farm size, and cropping patterns. According to these surveys, the estimated average monthly income per agricultural household increased from ₹6,426 in 2012-13 (NSS 70th round) to ₹10,218 in 2018 -19 (NSS 77th round).
116. According to the passage, what is the approximate share of Agriculture & Allied Sector in India’s total GVA?
A. 10%
B. 18%
C. 25%
D. 30%
Answer: B
117. What was the compound annual growth rate (CAGR) of the Agriculture & Allied Sector between 2014-15 and 2023-24 at current prices?
A. 3.6%
B. 2.4%
C. 8.83%
D. 18%
Answer: C
118. Arrange the following in descending order of their share in Agriculture & Allied Sector.
1. Crops
2. Livestock
3. Fishing & Aquaculture
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 2, 1, 3
C. 1, 3, 2
D. 3, 2, 1
Answer: A
119. The foodgrain production increased from 2515.42 LMT in 2015-16 to 3577.32 LMT in 2024-25. This represents:
A. A declining trend
B. An increasing trend
C. No significant change
D. A temporary fluctuation
Answer: B
120. The compound annual growth rate of foodgrain production during the last decade is approximately:
A. 2.4%
B. 8.83%
C. 3.6%
D. 7.55%
Answer: C
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