Candidates preparing for the Assam Judicial Services Examination should practice the Assam Judicial Services Mains 2020 paper (General Knowledge) along with other previous year papers before appearing for the mains. Solving these papers provides a clear understanding of the exam pattern, syllabus, and level of difficulty, while also enhancing answer-writing skills and time management. It further helps aspirants assess their strengths and weaknesses, enabling them to refine their preparation with a more focused and strategic approach.
Assam Judiciary Mains 2020 General Knowledge Paper – Download PDF
Assam Judicial Services Mains Written Examination 2020
General Knowledge
Total Marks: 100 marks
Duration: 3 hours
Question 1
Which of the following National Park has been renamed as Rajiv Gandhi National Park:
(a) Nameri National Park;
(b) Manas National Park;
(c) Orang National Park;
(d) Dibru-Saikhowa National Park
Question 2
Kaziranga National Park was declared as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO in the year:-
(a) 1980;
(b) 1985;
(c) 1990;
(d) 1995
Question 3
Which is the largest District in Assam by area:
(a) Karbi Anglong;
(b) Kamrup (Metro);
(c) Golaghat;
(d) Dhubri
Question 4
The Asom Divas is celebrated on –
(a) 10th December;
(b) 2nd December;
(c) 15th August;
(d) 25th January.
Question 5
In which location, the Manas river joins the Brahmaputra river?
(a) Dhubri;
(b) Jogighopa;
(c) Bilasipara;
(d) Halakura.
Question 6
Which town is also known as the Manchester of Assam?
(a) Sualkuchi;
(b) Hajo;
(c) Barpeta;
(d) Halakura
Question 7
In which year did Assamese get recognition as the State language of Assam?
(a) 1947;
(b) 1950;
(c) 1985;
(d) 1961.
Question 8
Assam came under President’s rule for the first time in the year-
(a) 1985;
(b) 1990;
(c) 2001;
(d) 1979.
Question 9
In which year was the Gauhati High Court established?
(a) 1947;
(b) 1948;
(c) 1950;
(d) 1951
Question 10
Ali-aai-Ligang is an agri-based festival celebrated by the-
(a) Bodo;
(b) Mishing;
(c) Rabha;
(d) Garo.
Question 11
The historic Assam accord was signed on-
(a) 26th January 1985;
(b) 15th August, 1985;
(c) 26th June, 1985;
(d) 15th March, 1985
Question 12
Who compiled and published the first Assamese dictionary in 1867?
(a) Oliver Cutter;
(b) Miles Bronson;
(c) Hiren Gohain;
(d) Horen Biswas
Question 13
Which is the first Assamese newspaper?
(a) Pratidin;
(b) Dainik Asom;
(c) Dainik Batori;
(d) Jagnagan
Question 14
Who was the teacher of Srimanta Sankardev (15th Century Vashnavite Saint of Assam)?
(a) Mahendra Kandali;
(b) S.K. Bhuyan;
(c) Khersuti;
(d) Kusumber Bhuyan.
Question 15
The Assamese person who has been awarded the Dada Saheb Phalke Award.
(a) Dr. Bhupen Hazarika;
(b) Parbati Prasad Barua;
(c) Dr. Banikanta Kakoti;
(d) Jyotiprasad Agarwala.
Question 16
Assamese novelist Joyasree Goswami Mahanta has won the Sahitya Academy Awards 2019 for her novel –
(a) Chanakya;
(b) Dronacharya;
(c) Tothar Anguthi;
(d) Asom Andolan.
Question 17
Who wrote the book Discovery of Assam?
(a) Satis Chandra Kakati;
(b) Shyamal Saha;
(c) Sanjoy Kalita;
(d) M.P. Goswami.
Question 18
The war of Saraighat was fought between the Ahom and Mughal in the year:
(a) 1771;
(b) 1650;
(c) 1671;
(d) 1670.
Question 19
The Ahom kingdom was established in the year:
(a) 1228;
(b) 1250;
(c) 1253;
(d) 1220
Question 20
Rang Ghar was constructed during the reign of-
(a) Pramatta Singha;
(b) Rudra Singha;
(c) Raghu Dev;
(d) Biswa Singha.
Question 21
Assam region was separated from the Bengal Presidency in the year –
(a) 1906;
(b) 1926;
(c) 1874;
(d) 1947.
Question 22
The first rebellion against the British rule in Assam in 1828 was led by:
(a) Gomdhar Knowar;
(b) Kanaklata Baruah;
(c) Maniram Dewan;
(d) Ashalata Baruah.
Question 23
The first peasant Uprising against the British was known as:
(a) Battle of Saraighat;
(b) Patharughat Raijmal;
(c) Phulaguri;
(d) None of the above.
Question 24
The Treaty of Yandaboo was signed between East India Company and which one of the following?
(a) King of Koch;
(b) King of Ahom;
(c) King of Burma;
(d) King of Bhutan.
Question 25
Which one of the following places is the confluence of three highly revered pilgrimages for the Hindu, Muslim and Buddhists?
(a) Dhubri;
(b) Sibsagar;
(c) Surya Pahar;
(d) Hajo.
Question 26
Which district was separated from Assam and given to Pakistan in 1947?
(a) Dhaka;
(b) Sylhet;
(c) Bengal;
(d) Khulna.
Question 27
Which State was separated from Assam in 1963?
(a) Tripura;
(b) Nagaland;
(c) Mizoram;
(d) Meghalaya
Question 28
In which place the first battle fought by Ahom king against the Mughals?
(a) Saraighat;
(b) Itakhuli;
(c) Hajo;
(d) Kacharighat.
Question 29
Who is the only Assamese President of Indian National Congress?
(a) Maniram Dewan;
(b) Tarun Ram Phukan;
(c) Deva Kanta Baruah;
(d) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed.
Question 30
Mahatma Gandhi first visited in Assam in the year:
(a) 1918;
(b) 1919;
(c) 1920;
(d) 1921.
Question 31
In which of the following year the Guwahati University was founded?
(a) 1948;
(b) 1947;
(c) 1950;
(d) 1949.
Question 32
Who was the first female Judge of Gauhati High Court?
(a) Meera Sharma;
(b) Kanaklata Baruah;
(c) Anuradha Sarma;
(d) Chandana Das.
Question 33
The Assam Police Day is observed on:
(a) 1st October;
(b) 2nd December;
(c) 5th June;
(d) 31st January.
Question 34
At which place the Nameri Wildlife Sanctuary is located?
(a) Kamrupa;
(b) Kokrajhar;
(c) Nalbari;
(d) Sonitpur.
Question 35
In which year, National Games was held in Assam:
(a) 2002;
(b) 2004;
(c) 2005;
(d) 2007.
Question 36
Which city of Assam has the largest dry fish market of Asia:
(a) Tangla;
(b) Jagiroad;
(c) Dhubri;
(d) Tinsukia.
Question 37
Total number of Parliamentary constituency in Assam:
(a) 12;
(b) 13;
(c) 14;
(d) 16.
Question 38
In which hill top, the Kamakhya Temple is located:
(a) Nilachal Hill;
(b) Umachal Hill;
(c) Sandhyachal Hill;
(d) Chitrachal Hill.
Question 39
In which year, the capital of Assam shifted from Shillong to Dispur:
(a) 1950;
(b) 1955;
(c) 1971;
(d) 1973.
Question 40
Total number of National Parks in Assam
(a) 3;
(b) 4;
(c) 5;
(d) 7.
Question 41
Total number of bridges over the river Brahmaputra:
(a) 4;
(b) 5;
(c) 6;
(d) 7
Question 42
Total number of Districts in Assam:
(a) 25;
(b) 26;
(c) 27;
(d) 33.
Question 43
Who is the first barrister of Assam:
(a) Holiram Deka;
(b) Pranab Borooah;
(c) Anundoram Borooah;
(d) Parul Das.
Question 44
The literacy rate of Assam according to 2011 census is:
(a) 72.19%;
(b) 72.58%;
(c) 73.12%;
(d) 73.98%.
Question 45
About 91% of world population of a particular animal species found in Kaziranga National Park is which one of the following:
(a) Asian hog deer;
(b) Pygmy hog;
(c) Asiatic wild buffalo;
(d) Sangai deer.
Question 46
In which of the following National Parks/ Wildlife Sanctuaries, the density of rhino population is the highest:
(a) Manas;
(b) Kaziranga;
(c) Pobitora;
(d) Nameri.
Question 47
The highest concentration of forest in the State of Assam occurs in:
(a) Karbi Anglong district;
(b) Dima Hasao district;
(c) Goalpara district;
(d) Dhubri district.
Question 48
In addition to Assamese, which other language from the State is included in the Eight Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Mishing;
(b) Rabha;
(c) Tiwa;
(d) Bodo.
Question 49
First Governor of Independent Assam?
(a) Gopinath Bordoloi;
(b) Abdul Malik;
(c) Sir Akbar Hydari;
(d) Maidul Islam Bora
Question 50
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:
List-I
(i) PMMY
(ii) PMRY
(iii) PMGSY
(iv) PMAY
List-II
(1) Self employment scheme.
(2) Scheme for funding non-corporate non-farm activity.
(3) Credit-link subsidy scheme for housing.
(4) Scheme for all-weather road connectivity for rural India.
Question 51
In India the voting age was reduced from 21 years to 18 years by: –
(a) 45th Amendment;
(b) 61st Amendment;
(c) 78th Amendment;
(d) 23rd Amendment.
Question 52
Who among the following recommends distribution of taxes between the Union and the State Government?
(a) Prime Minister;
(b) Reserve Bank of India;
(c) Finance Minster;
(d) Finance Commission.
Question 53
Who among the following decides the Foreign Policy of India?
(a) President;
(b) Council of ministers;
(c) Parliament;
(d) Prime minister.
Question 54
National Aquatic Animal of India?
(a) Crocodile;
(b) Blue Whale;
(c) Dolphin;
(d) Anaconda.
Question 55
Which is the most costly city in the world?
(a) Guwahati;
(b) Tokyo;
(c) London;
(d) Mumbai.
Question 56
Diamond and graphite are-
(a) Metals;
(b) Isomers;
(c) Allotropes;
(d) Homologous.
Question 57
When our National Anthem was first sung and where?
(a) 15th August, 1947 in Delhi;
(b) 26th January, 1950 in Delhi;
(c) 27th December, 1911 in Calcutta;
(d) 29th December, 1911 in Calcutta.
Question 58
Which city hosted the 2018 Secure India Conclave?
(a) Guwahati;
(b) New Delhi;
(c) Mumbai;
(d) Jaipur.
Question 59
Vande Mataram, the nationalist song, was a part of:
(a) Gita;
(b) Anand Math;
(c) Durgesh Nandini;
(d) Saraswati Chandra.
Question 60
Dhing Express is the nickname given to which Indian sprint runner:
(a) Hima Das;
(b) P.T. Usha;
(c) Dutee Chand;
(d) Karnam Malleswari.
Legal Aptitude Test Section
Question 61
Under section 96 CPC, no appeal can be filed –
(a) against a compromise decree.
(b) against a decree in any suit cognizable by the Courts of Small Causes, except on a question of law.
(c) both (a) and (b).
(d) only (a) is correct and (b) is incorrect.
Question 62
Preliminary decree is one
(a) which determines the rights of the parties with regard to some or one of the matters in controversy in the suit but does not finally dispose of the suit.
(b) which determines the rights of the parties with regard to some or one of the matters in controversy in the suit, which may have the effect of final disposal of the suit.
(c) both (a) and (b).
(d) neither (a) nor (b).
Question 63
Constructive res judicata is contained in-
(a) explanation III to section 11.
(b) explanation IV to section 11.
(c) explanation VI to section 11.
(d) explanation VII to section 11.
Question 64
Provisions of section 10 of CPC are-
(a) directory.
(b) mandatory.
(c) non- mandatory.
(d) discretionary.
Question 65
A suit for damages for breach of contract can be filed at a place-
(a) where the contract was made.
(b) where the contract was to be performed or breach occurred.
(c) anywhere in India.
(d) both (a) and (b).
Question 66
A suit is bad for non- joinder of a necessary party, as provided for –
(a) under Order I, Rule 9 of CPC.
(b) under Order I, Rule 10 of CPC.
(c) under Order I Rule 10A of CPC.
(d) under Order I, Rule 11 of CPC.
Question 67
On the ground that an amendment may take the suit out of the jurisdiction of that Court–
(a) is a ground for refusing that amendment.
(b) may be a ground for refusing so much of the prayer for amendment, which would take the suit out of the jurisdiction of that Court.
(c) is no ground for refusing that amendment.
(d) may be a ground for refusing that amendment.
Question 68
In a suit, the list of witnesses has to be filed by the parties –
(a) before settlement of issues.
(b) after settlement of issues.
(c) at any time.
(d) all the above.
Question 69
A right to file counter-claim has been provided –
(a) under Order VIII, Rule 6A of CPC.
(b) under Order VIII, Rule 6B of CPC.
(c) under Order VIII, Rule 6C of CPC.
(d) under Order VIII, Rule 6D of CPC.
Question 70
Under Order IC Rule 4 of CPC, a suit can be restored if dismissed –
(a) under Order IX, Rule 2 of CPC.
(b) under Order IX, Rule 3 of CPC.
(c) under Order IX, Rule 8 of CPC.
(d) only under (a) and (b).
Question 71
Judgment on admission can be given-
(a) under Order XII, Rule 8 of CPC.
(b) under Order XII, Rule 6 of CPC.
(c) under Order XII, Rule 2 of CPC.
(a) under Order XX, Rule 1 of CPC.
Question 72
Who shall produce the evidence first-
(a) plaintiff.
(b) defendant.
(c) either plaintiff or defendant.
(d) as directed by the Court.
Question 73
Judgment and decree have been dealt in CPC –
(a) under Order XIX
(b) under Order XX
(c) under Order XXA
(d) under Order XXI
Question 74
An executing Court-
(a) can modify the terms of the decree.
(b) can vary the terms of the decree.
(c) can modify and vary the terms of the decree.
(d) can neither modify nor vary the terms of the decree.
Question 75
Abetment in context of civil proceeding means:
(a) suspension or termination of proceedings in an action for want of proper parties.
(b) the process of bringing on record the legal representatives of the party on death of a party to the suit.
(c) the process of seeking permission to file a fresh suit on the same cause of action on the death of either party.
(d) all the above.
Question 76
Interlocutory injunction can be granted-
(a) ex parte.
(b) only after service of notice to the other party.
(c) only after hearing both the parties.
(d) all the above.
Question 77
Interlocutory injunction can be granted to a party establishing-
(a) a prima facie case in his or her favour.
(b) balance of convenience in his or her favour.
(c) irreparable injury to him or her in the event of non- grant of injunction.
(d) all the above.
Question 78
Reference means-
(a) the orders given by the High Court to the Courts subordinate to the High Court.
(b) the opinion sought of the High Court by the Courts subordinate thereto on a question of law.
(c) the opinion sought of the High Court by the Courts subordinate thereto on a question of fact.
(d) the opinion sought of the Supreme Court by the High Court either on a question of law or fact.
Question 79
Right to lodge a caveat has been provided under-
(a) Section 147 of CPC.
(b) Section 148 of CPC.
(c) Section 148A of CPC.
(d) Section 151 of CPC.
Question 80
Order XVII, Rule 1 of CPC restricts the number of adjournment to be granted to a party to-
(a) five.
(b) four.
(c) three.
(d) two.
Question 81
Principle: An agreement may be entered into orally or in writing, or by conduct.
Facts: A went to the shop of B and picked a toothbrush and gave a cheque of Rs.20/- to B and left the shop.
(a) Payment of toothbrush cannot be made through a cheque.
(b) A did not enter into an agreement with B.
(c) A should have carried a currency note of Rs.20/- to make the payment.
(d) There was an agreement between A and B.
Question 82
Principle: Law never enforces an impossible promise.
Facts: A made a promise to B to discover treasure by magic.
(a) Law will not enforce the promise.
(b) Law will enforce the promise.
(c) Law will enforce the promise only at the option of A.
(d) Law will enforce the promise only at the option of B.
Question 83
Principle: Consent is a good defence for civil action in tort. But consent must include both
knowledge and risk and assumption of risk, i.e. readiness to bear harm.
Facts: A lady passenger was aware that the driver of the cab, in which she opted to travel was intoxicated. The cab met with an accident and lady got injured.
(a) Driver can take the plea that he was lightly intoxicated.
(b) Lady is not entitled to compensation as she had the knowledge of risk.
(c) Lady is entitled to compensation as she only knew about the risk and there was no assumption of risk.
(d) Lady can refuse to pay the fare as she had suffered injuries.
Question 84
Principles: (1) A person is said to abet the doing of a thing when he instigates any other person to do that thing.
(2) A mere acquiescence, however, does not amount to instigation.
Facts: A says to B : I am going to kill C. And B replies: Do as you wish and take the consequences. Whereafter A kills C.
(a) B has not abetted A to kill C.
(b) B has abetted A by conspiracy.
(c) B has abetted A to kill C.
(d) B is jointly liable with A for killing C.
Question 85
Principles: (1) A servant is one who is employed to do some work for his employer (master).
He is engaged under a contract of service. He works directly under the control and directions of his master.
(2) In general, the master is vicariously liable for those torts (wrongful acts) of his servant which
are done by the servant in the course of his employment.
Facts: M appointed D for the purpose of driving his tourist vehicle. M also appointed C exclusively for the purpose of performing the work of a conductor for the tourist vehicle. During one trip, at the end of the journey, C while D was not on the driver’s seat, and apparently for the purpose of turning the vehicle in the right direction for the next journey, drove it through the street at a high speed, and negligently injured P.
(a) M could be made liable for the act of C at his (C’s) act of driving the vehicle was within the scope of employment.
(b) M is not liable as he was not present at the time of accident.
(c) M could not be made liable for the act of C at his (C’s) act of driving the vehicle was not in the course of his employment.
(d) M would be made liable for the act of C, as C was employed under a contract of service.
Question 86
Principle: alibi means a plea by an accused that he –
(a) was facing trial.
(b) was present elsewhere.
(c) underwent preventive detention.
(d) remained in judicial custody.
Question 87
Under the Constitution of India restriction on freedom of religion cannot be pressed on the ground of –
(a) Public order
(b) Social justice
(c) Morality
(d) Health
Question 88
If an authority is holding information about another in a fiduciary capacity, the information under the Right to Information Act, 2005 may not be obtainable. Fiduciary relationship is based on –
(a) Authority.
(b) Law.
(c) Trust.
(d) Contract.
Question 89
Which one of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy under Part-IV of the Constitution of India?
(a) Promotion of adult education.
(b) Promotion of International peace and security.
(c) Organisation of village panchayats.
(d) Provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief.
Question 90
Audi alteram partem means
(a) Not connected to facts.
(b) Giving opportunity of hearing to the other side.
(c) Following the substantive law.
(d) A transferee cannot transfer.
Question 91
Principle: Intentional application of force to another person is actionable in law.
Facts: P and D are unknown to each other. When P is about to sit on a chair, D intentionally pulls it away as a result of which P falls on the floor and is injured.
(a) D is not liable as P is not seriously injured.
(b) D is liable as he intentionally caused injury to P.
(c) D is not liable as such jokes are common in the society.
(d) D is not liable as injury is not directly caused.
Question 92
Principle: (1) Wagering agreement are void.
(2) Collateral agreement to wagering contracts are valid.
Facts: XYZ Bank lends Rs.40,000/- to S in order to enable him to award as prize money to R who is the winner of horse race. Late S refused to pay the prize stating that horse racing is wagering agreement. Can XYZ Bank recover money from S.
(a) Yes it is only a collateral agreement to horse racing and therefore the bank can recover money from S.
(b) Horse racing is illegal and therefore XYZ Bank cannot recover anything from S.
(c) No, as it is wagering agreement.
(d) Bank can recover money from S so that payment of prize money can be made to R.
Question 93
Principle: When a person lawfully does anything for another person, or delivers anything to him, not intending to do so or to provide gratuitously, and such other person takes the benefit of that; the later is bound to compensate the former for something done or thing provided, or to restore the thing so delivered.
Facts: Trader A delivers certain eatables at B’s house by mistake. B consumes the eatables without asking anything. Which of the following options is correct?
(a) B is bound to pay A for the eatables.
(b) B can be made liable to pay for the eatables, only if A establishes as an express contract between A and B.
(c) B is not bound to pay A for the eatables.
(d) It is the discretion of B to make payment to A for the eatables.
Question 94
Principle: Consent is a good defence in a civil action for tort but the act should be the same for which consent was given.
Facts: B was formally invited by A to his house. B after sitting for sometime in drawing room, moved to the bedroom of the house. A sued B for trespass.
(a) B has interfered with the privacy of A.
(b) B has committed no trespass as he entered the house with A’s consent.
(c) B has offended A by moving to bedroom.
(d) B has committed trespass as there was no consent of A for entry in the bedroom.
Question 95
Principle: Whoever takes away any movable thing from the land of any person without that person’s consent, he is said to have committed theft.
Facts: During his visit to the house of C, A asked the son of C to accompany A to the forest.
Neither A nor B informed C in this regard. B accompanied A to the forest.
(a) A has committed theft as soon as he entered the house of C.
(b) A has not committed theft.
(c) A has committed theft.
(d) A has not committed theft till B did not accompany him.
Question 96
Principle: The communication of a proposal is complete when it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made.
Facts: A sends a letter making a proposal to B to purchase the house of B.
(a) The communication of proposal is complete when B reads the letter.
(b) The communication of proposal is complete when A sends the letter.
(c) The communication of proposal is complete when B’s wife received it.
(d) The communication of proposal is complete when B’s wife hands over the letter to B.
Question 97
Principle: Law does not penalise for wrongs which are of trivial nature.
Facts: In the course of a discussion, A threw a file of papers at the table which touched the hands of B.
(a) A is liable for his act, as the file touched B’s hand.
(b) A is liable for his act, as it assaulted B.
(c) A is liable for insulting B.
(d) A is not liable for his act, as it was of trivial nature.
Question 98
Principle: Copyright law protects only work. Work means cinematographic film but does not include performance by an actor in a cinematographic film.
Facts: A an actress acted in a movie.
(a) The acting of A can be protected under copyright law as professional work.
(b) The acting of A cannot be protected under copyright law.
(c) The acting of A can be protected under copyright law only as an artistic work.
(d) The acting of A can be protected as film producer’s work.
Question 99
Principle: Import means bringing come consignment into India from a foreign country.
Facts: A consignment from Sri Lanka entered the territorial waters of India. However, this consignment never crossed the Indian Customs barrier not did it enter into the stream of commerce in India.
(a) The consignment will only be imported into India when it enters into the stream of commerce in India.
(b) The consignment was not imported into India.
(c) The consignment was imported into India.
(d) The consignment will only be imported into India when it crosses the Indian customs barrier.
Question 100
Principle: A person is said to have committed assault when an apprehension is caused in the mind of a person that he is about to get physical force against his body.
Facts: A abuses B while he was sitting in a moving train, by aggressively shaking his fist when B was standing on a railway platform at a distance.
(a) A has caused apprehension of assault in the mind of B.
(b) A has committed assault against B.
(c) A has not caused assault against B.
(d) A has caused fear of assault in the mind of B.