Legal Bites presents the CLAT UG Mock Legal Practice Questions – March 2026, thoughtfully curated to refine your preparation strategy and strengthen your legal aptitude for the upcoming examination. In preparing this mock test, we have tried to closely follow the CLAT UG 2026 pattern while ensuring coverage of all subjects relevant to the CLAT UG syllabus. The paper is designed to test reading comprehension, critical reasoning, and the ability to apply concepts across passages drawn from law, current affairs, history, economics, and social issues—mirroring the demands of the actual CLAT UG exam. Candidates are advised to attempt the mock in a time-bound manner, evaluate their answers carefully, and use the results to identify strengths, address gaps, and improve overall exam strategy.
CLAT UG Mock Legal Practice Questions
March 2026
SECTION I
I. The Khilafat Movement emerged with the primary objective of compelling the British Government to revise its policy towards Turkey and restore the authority of the Turkish Sultan, who was regarded by many Indian Muslims as the Caliph. To pursue this cause, a Khilafat Committee was established under prominent leaders such as Maulana Mohammad Ali, Shaukat Ali, Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, Hakim Ajmal Khan, and Hasrat Mohani. The committee organized widespread protests across the country to express discontent against British actions.
In February 1920, Mahatma Gandhi advised the Khilafat leaders to adopt a strategy of non-violent non-cooperation as a means of resistance. This proposal was formally accepted at a meeting of the Khilafat Committee held in Allahabad on 9 June 1920, where Gandhi was invited to lead the movement. Recognizing the broader political potential of this alliance, leaders of the Indian National Congress viewed the Khilafat agitation as a crucial opportunity to strengthen Hindu–Muslim unity and to mobilize Muslim participation in the national freedom struggle.
The Non-Cooperation Movement that followed incorporated several constructive programmes. These included the establishment of national educational institutions, the creation of local panchayats, promotion of Swadeshi goods and Khadi, efforts to foster communal harmony, and initiatives aimed at eradicating untouchability. These measures were formally endorsed at the Nagpur Session of the Indian National Congress in December 1920, which also introduced significant organizational changes to the party’s structure.
However, as the movement progressed, concerns arose regarding the possibility of it turning violent. Following incidents of unrest, Gandhi, apprehensive about the deviation from non-violence, persuaded the Congress Working Committee to call off the movement abruptly on 12 February 1922. Shortly thereafter, Gandhi was arrested on 10 March 1922 and remained in custody until his release in February 1924.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from Aasha Yadav, “Gandhi Role in Mass Movement,” International Journal of Humanities and Social Science Research, Vol. 9, Issue 1, 2023, pp. 59–61, ISSN: 2455-2070]
1. What was the primary objective of the Khilafat Movement?
A. To demand complete independence for India
B. To restore the authority of the Turkish Sultan as Caliph
C. To oppose the Partition of Bengal
D. To establish a socialist government in India
Answer: B
2. Which of the following leaders was NOT associated with the Khilafat Committee?
A. Maulana Mohammad Ali
B. Shaukat Ali
C. Hakim Ajmal Khan
D. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Answer: D
3. In February 1920, Gandhi advised the Khilafat leaders to adopt which method of resistance?
A. Armed rebellion
B. Constitutional agitation
C. Violent protest
D. Non-violent non-cooperation
Answer: D
4. The proposal of non-cooperation was formally accepted at a Khilafat Committee meeting held at:
A. Bombay
B. Nagpur
C. Allahabad
D. Calcutta
Answer: C
5. Which of the following leaders was invited to lead the Khilafat Movement?
A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. Subhas Chandra Bose
D. Vallabhbhai Patel
Answer: A
II. Air pollution refers to the contamination of the indoor or outdoor environment by chemical, physical, or biological agents that alter the natural characteristics of the atmosphere. Common sources of air pollution include household combustion devices, motor vehicles, industrial establishments, and forest fires. Both natural processes and human activities contribute to the generation of air pollution.
Air pollution occurs when harmful pollutants are released into the atmosphere, adversely affecting human health and the environment. It can lead to diseases, allergies, and even death in humans, while also harming animals and damaging the natural as well as built environment. According to the World Health Organization, air pollution causes nearly seven million deaths globally every year.
Since most pollutants present in the air are invisible to the naked eye, people often fail to recognise the increasing levels of pollution and their sources. Therefore, it is important to understand the causes of air pollution and the measures needed to control it.
The burning of fossil fuels is one of the major causes of air pollution. The combustion of coal, petroleum, and other fossil fuels releases large amounts of sulphur dioxide into the atmosphere. Incomplete combustion also emits carbon monoxide, which further contributes to environmental pollution.
Automobiles are another significant source of air pollution. Vehicles such as cars, buses, trucks, and jeeps release harmful gases that pollute the atmosphere. These emissions contribute heavily to greenhouse gases and are responsible for various health problems among individuals.
Agricultural activities also contribute to air pollution. Harmful gases such as ammonia are released during farming activities, while insecticides, pesticides, and chemical fertilisers emit toxic substances into the atmosphere, thereby contaminating the air.
Factories and industries release pollutants such as carbon monoxide, hydrocarbons, organic compounds, and various harmful chemicals into the atmosphere. These emissions degrade air quality and create serious environmental and health hazards.
Mining activities further add to air pollution. During the extraction of minerals from beneath the earth using heavy machinery, large amounts of dust and chemicals are released into the air. These pollutants not only contaminate the atmosphere but also adversely affect the health of workers and people residing in nearby areas. [355 words]
[Extracted and revised from Lokesh Harsulkar et al., “A Review Paper on Study of Air Pollution and its Control Measures”, International Journal for Research in Applied Science & Engineering Technology (IJRASET), October 2023.]
6. According to the passage, air pollution refers to:
A. Increase in temperature due to sunlight
B. Contamination of the environment by harmful agents
C. Pollution caused only by industries
D. Depletion of natural resources
Answer: B
7. Air pollution may result in:
A. Increased agricultural productivity
B. Improvement in biodiversity
C. Diseases, allergies, and death in humans
D. Reduction in greenhouse gases
Answer: C
8. According to the passage, the World Health Organization estimates that air pollution causes nearly:
A. One million deaths annually
B. Three million deaths annually
C. Five million deaths annually
D. Seven million deaths annually
Answer: D
9. Incomplete combustion of fossil fuels mainly emits:
A. Carbon monoxide
B. Methane
C. Ozone
D. Helium
Answer: A
10. Which of the following vehicles are identified as contributors to air pollution?
A. Cars and buses
B. Trucks and jeeps
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Answer: C
III. Indian civilization and culture is one of the oldest civilizations and cultures of the world, but which one is the oldest has yet not been decided. However, all accept that Indian Vedas (Rig-Veda, Yajurveda, Atharvaveda and Samveda) are the oldest scriptures of the world. Vedas are generally considered as religious scriptures but they are the repositories of all types of knowledge discovered and developed by Aryans till then in the words of English scholar, F.W. Thomas There has been no country except India where the love of learning had so early an origin or has exercised so Jasting and powerful influence.” According to historians, Indians were totally governed by Vedas during 2500 B. C. to 500 B. C. and they call this period as Vedic Period. India was the first country of the world which could develop. a very sound system of education during Vedic period. This system of education is known as Vedic System of Education. The Brahmins had acquired sole right on education in the later Vedic period, so a number of scholars call the later Vedic system of education as the Brahmin system of education. And because both the systems of education-the early Vedic system of education and the later Vedic System of Education১were developed by Hindus, many of the scholars call both these systems of education as Hindu System of Education. We consider it appropriate to call it the Vedic System of Education as it was developed in Vedic period and it remained almost the same during the whole period.
Rig Veda is the oldest and most important of the Vedas. It contains 1028 hymns in ten books (known as mandalas) dedicated to various deities. Indra, Agni, Vishnu, Rudra, Varuna, and other early or “Vedic deities” are among them.
[Extracted from International Journal for Innovative Research in Multidisciplinary Field (ISSN(O): 2455-0620), Vol. 10, Issue 5, May 2024, p. 91, article titled “Indian Knowledge Tradition in Vaidic Literature like Vedas, Purans and Smritis: An Overview” by Dr. Priya and Ms. Pavitra]
11. The Vedic Period is generally considered to have existed between:
A. 1500 B.C. to 500 A.D.
B. 2500 B.C. to 500 B.C.
C. 1000 B.C. to 100 B.C.
D. 3000 B.C. to 1500 B.C.
Answer: B
12. Which of the following is NOT one of the four Vedas?
A. Rig Veda
B. Samveda
C. Atharvaveda
D. Upanishad
Answer: D
13. The Vedic System of Education was developed during the:
A. Mughal Period
B. Buddhist Period
C. Vedic Period
D. Mauryan Period
Answer: C
13. In the later Vedic period, who had acquired the sole right to education?
A. Kshatriyas
B. Vaishyas
C. Brahmins
D. Shudras
Answer: C
14. Which Veda is considered the oldest and most important?
A. Rig Veda
B. Samveda
C. Atharvaveda
D. Yajurveda
Answer: A
15. How many hymns are contained in the Rig Veda?
A. 500
B. 786
C. 1028
D. 1510
Answer: C
IV. Women in India are often regarded as embodiments of various goddesses such as Maa Durga for strength, Maa Lakshmi for prosperity, and Maa Saraswati for knowledge. These goddesses are worshipped with immense devotion and reverence. Ideally, therefore, women too deserve respect, dignity, and equal treatment in society. However, this admiration largely remains confined to theory, while the practical reality presents a very different picture.
For centuries, a large section of women in India has continued to suffer various forms of humiliation and discrimination within the patriarchal structure of society. Women frequently face physical and mental harassment at home, insulting remarks, and social restrictions. Outside the home, many are subjected to eve-teasing, indecent proposals, vulgar comments, sexual harassment, and even grave crimes such as rape and murder. Such violence affects women of all age groups, from young children to elderly women, demonstrating the harsh realities faced by women in everyday life.
At the same time, Indian history also reflects inspiring examples of remarkable women who earned great respect through their achievements in different fields. In ancient India, learned women such as Gargi, Maitreyee, and Lopamudra were celebrated for their wisdom and scholarship. During the medieval period, courageous personalities like Rani Durgavati, Chand Bibi, and Mirabai became symbols of bravery and devotion. In modern India, women such as Indira Gandhi, Matangini Hazra, Pritilata Waddedar, Kalpana Chawla, Sania Mirza, and Lata Mangeshkar have achieved distinction in politics, patriotism, science, sports, music, and several other fields.
Despite these inspiring examples, the number of women receiving equal opportunities and recognition remains relatively small compared to the broader reality. In general, women in India continue to face inequality, gender discrimination, and social disadvantages. These barriers have existed since ancient times and continue to obstruct the overall development of society and the nation. Although the Constitution and various laws guarantee equal rights and status to women, patriarchal traditions, social customs, and cultural practices often place women in a secondary position.
However, with the passage of time, societal attitudes have gradually started changing. Both society and the government have increasingly realised that the progress of a nation is impossible without the empowerment and welfare of women. In this regard, the famous words of Swami Vivekananda remain highly relevant: “There is no chance for the welfare of the world unless the condition of women is improved. It is not possible for a bird to fly on only one wing.”
Recognising the importance of women’s empowerment, the Government of India has introduced several policies and welfare schemes aimed at reducing gender discrimination and improving women’s access to education, employment, healthcare, and political participation. Such measures seek to ensure that women can enjoy equal opportunities alongside men and contribute effectively to the social, economic, and political development of the country.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from Malay Kumar Ghosh, “Women Empowerment: A Weapon to Sustainable Development of India,” RAY: International Journal of Multidisciplinary Studies, Vol. V, No. 2 (2020)]
16. Women in India are traditionally regarded as embodiments of which of the following goddesses for wisdom?
A. Maa Durga
B. Maa Lakshmi
C. Maa Saraswati
D. Maa Kali
Answer: C
17. The passage primarily highlights the contradiction between:
A. Religion and politics
B. Worship of women and their social condition
C. Urban and rural development
D. Ancient and modern education
Answer: B
18. Which of the following women mentioned in the passage is associated with science and space exploration?
A. Sania Mirza
B. Lata Mangeshkar
C. Kalpana Chawla
D. Mirabai
Answer: C
19. Which of the following women mentioned in the passage is associated with music?
A. Lata Mangeshkar
B. Pritilata Waddedar
C. Indira Gandhi
D. Chand Sultana
Answer: A
20. According to the passage, improvement in the condition of women is necessary for:
A. Religious reforms only
B. Welfare and development of the world
C. Economic development of villages only
D. Political success alone
Answer: B
V. The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 marked the beginning of a transformative phase in India’s education system. Introduced after more than three decades since the previous policy of 1986, it seeks to comprehensively reform the educational framework of the country in response to the changing needs of the 21st century. Over the years, rapid technological advancements, globalization, and evolving perspectives on learning have significantly altered the nature of education and employment. Keeping these developments in mind, NEP 2020 has been designed to prepare the Indian education system for future challenges and opportunities.
One of the most significant features of the policy is that it views education not merely as a means of obtaining degrees, but as a lifelong process of learning and development. The policy aims to integrate all stages of education, including Early Childhood Care and Education (ECCE), school education, and higher education, covering children between the ages of 3 and 18 years. Instead of promoting traditional rote learning, NEP 2020 emphasizes critical thinking, creativity, innovation, and practical skills to ensure holistic development among students.
To make education more flexible and learner-centric, the policy adopts a multidisciplinary approach by removing the rigid separation between streams such as science, arts, and commerce. This reform enables students to choose subjects according to their interests and abilities, thereby encouraging broader knowledge and skill development.
In the field of language education, NEP 2020 places special emphasis on imparting primary education in the mother tongue or regional language. The rationale behind this approach is that children understand concepts more effectively when taught in their native language. At the same time, the policy promotes the study of other Indian languages, including Sanskrit, to preserve and strengthen India’s rich linguistic and cultural heritage.
Recognizing the growing importance of technology in modern education, the policy strongly advocates technology-driven learning. It encourages the use of online learning platforms, digital content, and emerging technologies such as artificial intelligence to make education more accessible, inclusive, and effective.
[Extracted and revised from Shifali Garg and Dr. Parul Jhajharia, “Importance and Impact of National Education Policy 2020 in Indian Education System,” Journal of Information Systems Engineering and Management, Vol. 10(49s), 2025.]
21. In which year was the National Education Policy (NEP) implemented in India?
A. 1986
B. 1992
C. 2020
D. 2022
Answer: C
21. According to NEP 2020, primary education should preferably be imparted in:
A. English only
B. Hindi only
C. Foreign languages
D. Mother tongue or regional language
Answer: D
22. Which of the following technologies has been emphasized under NEP 2020?
A. Blockchain only
B. Artificial Intelligence
C. Nuclear technology
D. Robotics only
Answer: B
23. NEP 2020 integrates education for children between which age groups?
A. 3 to 18 years
B. 5 to 15 years
C. 6 to 14 years
D. 10 to 18 years
Answer: A
24. Which of the following is promoted by NEP 2020 instead of rote learning?
A. Memorisation techniques
B. Coaching-based education
C. Critical thinking and creativity
D. Examination-oriented learning
Answer: C
SECTION II
VI. Parliament on Thursday passed Industrial Relations Code (Amendment) Bill, 2026, seeking to bring legal clarity over labour issues. Both Houses passed the bill by voice vote, even as several opposition members described it as “anti-labour” and accused the government of favouring industrialists over workers while drafting the industrial relations code.
BJP and its allies, on the other hand, strongly defended the bill terming it a “historic reform” for the welfare of labourers.
Replying to a debate on the bill in Lok Sabha, labour minister Mansukh Mandaviya said the four labour codes implemented nearly three months ago give a guarantee of minimum wage. These codes also ensure compulsory issuance of appointment letters as well as uniform wages for the same work irrespective of gender, he said.
Before the bill was passed by RS, leader of the opposition Mallikarjun Kharge said the four codes are a way to steal the rights of workers, and the government has joined hands with corporates to strangle labourers, by threatening job security and increasing working hours.
[Extracted from the newspaper, The Times of India, February 13, 2026]
25. What is the primary objective of the Industrial Relations Code (Amendment) Bill, 2026?
A. To abolish labour unions
B. To bring legal clarity over labour issues
C. To privatise public sector industries
D. To reduce industrial production
Answer: B
26. How was the Industrial Relations Code (Amendment) Bill, 2026 passed in Parliament?
A. Through a referendum
B. By presidential ordinance
C. By voice vote in both Houses
D. By judicial order
Answer: C
27. Opposition members described the bill as:
A. Pro-farmer
B. Environment-friendly
C. Anti-industrialist
D. Anti-labour
Answer: D
28. According to the opposition, the government drafted the bill in favour of:
A. Farmers
B. Industrialists
C. Students
D. Judges
Answer: B
29. Which Union Minister replied to the debate on the bill in Lok Sabha?
A. Mansukh Mandaviya
B. Piyush Goyal
C. Amit Shah
D. Rajnath Singh
Answer: A
VII. The IMD, while releasing a monthly weather outlook for February, also predicted ‘below normal’ rainfall over most parts of the country, except some areas of northwest and east-central India.
The less rainfall situation during the month may impact the standing Rabi (winter sown) crops in terms of increasing irrigation cost, whereas the ‘above normal’ temperatures in Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan could lead to “forced maturity” of crops like wheat and barley, leading to sterile spikelets and chaffy grains, resulting in yield reduction.
[Extracted from The Times of India, “Slightly warm and dry Feb may impact Rabi crops, IMD predicts while releasing monthly temp and rainfall outlook”, by Vishwa Mohan, February 2026]
30. What did the IMD predict regarding rainfall for February?
A. Above normal rainfall across India
B. Normal rainfall in all states
C. Below normal rainfall over most parts of the country
D. Heavy rainfall only in coastal regions
Answer: C
31. According to the passage, which regions may not experience below normal rainfall?
A. Southern and western India
B. Northwest and east-central India
C. Coastal and desert regions
D. Himalayan and northeastern regions
Answer: B
32. The standing Rabi crops referred to in the passage are mainly:
A. Winter sown crops
B. Monsoon crops
C. Summer crops
D. Plantation crops
Answer: A
33. Which of the following may increase due to less rainfall during February?
A. Export of crops
B. Agricultural wages
C. Food subsidies
D. Irrigation cost
Answer: D
34. Which crops are specifically mentioned in the passage as being affected by forced maturity?
A. Rice and maize
B. Cotton and sugarcane
C. Wheat and barley
D. Tea and coffee
Answer: C
VIII. Iran and US are set to resume their nuclear talks in Geneva on 26th of this month, as tensions between the two countries continue to escalate over Tehran’s nuclear programme. Akashvani correspondent reports that Iran’s foreign minister, Abbas Araghchi is expected to face US special envoy Steve Witkoff across the table, and has said there is “a good chance” of reaching a diplomatic resolution. Tehran, however, has made clear it will discuss only its nuclear programme firmly ruling out any talks on its missile arsenal or regional proxies. The two sides met twice before, first in Oman and then in Geneva on February 17 , where they agreed on broad guiding principles for a potential deal.
The central dispute remains uranium enrichment: Washington insists Iran must not retain the capacity to build a nuclear weapon, while Tehran says enrichment is its sovereign right. All of this is playing out as the US maintains its largest military presence in the Middle East in years, with President Trump warning that military options remain on the table if diplomacy falls short. The nuclear talks are set to happen against a backdrop of renewed unrest inside Iran, where university students took to campuses in Tehran and other cities over the weekend, marking the first major rallies since a deadly crackdown in January.
[Extracted from News on Air, Iran, “US set to resume nuclear talks in Geneva on Feb 26”, February 23, 2026]
35. Which US official is expected to participate in the talks with Iran?
A. Antony Blinken
B. Jake Sullivan
C. Steve Witkoff
D. Lloyd Austin
Answer: C
36. What is the central dispute in the nuclear talks?
A. Border security
B. Uranium enrichment
C. Oil pricing
D. Arms trade
Answer: B
37. Where are Iran and the US set to resume their nuclear talks on the 26th of the month?
A. Vienna
B. Geneva
C. Doha
D. Muscat
Answer: B
38. Who is Iran’s foreign minister mentioned in the passage?
A. Hassan Rouhani
B. Ebrahim Raisi
C. Abbas Araghchi
D. Mohammad Khatami
Answer: C
39. The protests mentioned in the passage were the first major rallies since:
A. A deadly crackdown in January
B. The 2020 elections
C. The signing of the nuclear deal
D. The economic sanctions of 2015
Answer: A
40. According to Tehran, uranium enrichment is:
A. A violation of international law
B. A temporary policy
C. Subject to US approval
D. A sovereign right
Answer: D
IX. At the invitation of Prime Minister Narendra Modi, French President Emmanuel Macron will pay a three-day official visit to India, commencing on the 17th of February. President Macron will participate in the AI Impact Summit in New Delhi on 19th February. Ministry of External Affairs has said that, during the visit, both leaders will hold discussions on strengthening bilateral cooperation across a wide spectrum of areas as enshrined in the Horizon 2047 Roadmap.
The leaders will discuss regional and global issues of mutual interest, including cooperation in the Indo-Pacific. The two leaders will also visit Mumbai to jointly inaugurate the India-France Year of Innovation, which will be celebrated throughout 2026 in both countries. Mr Macron’s visit follows Prime Minister Modi’s visit to France in February last year. It reflects the mutual trust and depth of the India-France Strategic Partnership and the shared commitment of the two countries to deepen it further.
[Extracted from News On AIR, “French President Emmanuel Macron to Visit India on Feb 17,” published on 11 February 2026]
41. The AI Impact Summit mentioned in the passage will be held in:
A. New Delhi
B. Bengaluru
C. Mumbai
D. Hyderabad
Answer: A
42. The bilateral cooperation between India and France is guided by which roadmap?
A. Vision 2030 Roadmap
B. Horizon 2047 Roadmap
C. India-Europe Partnership Roadmap
D. Strategic Alliance 2050
Answer: B
43. India and France are expected to discuss cooperation in which strategic region?
A. Arctic Region
B. Indo-Pacific
C. Middle East
D. South America
Answer: B
44. Which ministry issued the statement regarding President Macron’s visit?
A. Ministry of Home Affairs
B. Ministry of Defence
C. Ministry of Commerce
D. Ministry of External Affairs
Answer: D
45. President Macron’s visit reflects the depth of the:
A. India-France Trade Agreement
B. India-France Strategic Partnership
C. India-EU Defence Pact
D. Indo-Pacific Maritime Alliance
Answer: B
46. President Emmanuel Macron will participate in which event during his visit to India?
A. G20 Summit
B. Global Climate Conference
C. AI Impact Summit
D. BRICS Summit
Answer: C
X. P. Wilson, senior advocate and Rajya Sabha MP of the Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) party, has introduced a private member Bill to amend the Constitution in order to bring diversity in judicial appointments and set up regional benches of the Supreme Court.
Article 124 of the Constitution provides that judges of the Supreme Court shall be appointed by the President after consulting the Chief Justice of India (CJI). Similarly, Article 217 provides that judges of a High Court shall be appointed by the President after consulting the CJI, the Chief Justice of the High Court and Governor of the State. Article 130 of the Constitution provides that the seat of the Supreme Court shall be in Delhi or such other place(s) as appointed by the CJI with the approval of central government.
[Excerpts from The Hindu, “The Need for Diversity in the Judiciary”]
47. P. Wilson, who introduced a private member Bill regarding diversity in judicial appointments, is a:
A. Lok Sabha MP from Congress
B. Rajya Sabha MP from DMK
C. Rajya Sabha MP from BJP
D. Senior Advocate and Lok Sabha MP
Answer: B
48. The Private member bill introduced by P. Wilson seeks to:
A. Abolish the collegium system
B. Increase the retirement age of judges
C. Bring diversity in judicial appointments and establish regional benches of the Supreme Court
D. Transfer High Court powers to district courts
Answer: C
49. The term “CJI” stands for:
A. Chief Judicial Inspector
B. Chief Justice of India
C. Central Judicial Institution
D. Constitutional Judicial Investigator
Answer: B
50. The idea of diversity in judicial appointments seeks to strengthen:
A. Public confidence in the judiciary
B. Political interference
C. Executive dominance
D. Legislative control
Answer: A
51. Which institution is the highest judicial body in India?
A. Parliament
B. High Court
C. Supreme Court
D. Law Commission
Answer: C
52. The Bill introduced by P. Wilson seeks amendment of the:
A. Indian Penal Code
B. Constitution of India
C. Code of Civil Procedure
D. Representation of the People Act
Answer: B
SECTION III
XI. According to the National Accounts Statistics, which presents data on national income, production, and expenditure aggregates of the Indian economy, the base year is the reference year whose prices are used to calculate real GDP growth.
Quarterly GDP estimates in India are prepared by the National Statistical Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) using the Benchmark-Indicator method, a globally accepted approach aligned with the System of National Accounts (SNA) 2008 and the IMF’s Quarterly National Accounts Manual, 2017.
Under this method, annual GDP estimates serve as the benchmark, while high-frequency indicators such as monthly and quarterly data are used to derive quarterly GDP estimates. For economic comparisons over time to remain meaningful, GDP estimation must rely on consistent methodologies, data sources, and base years. Any revision in the statistical framework must therefore be carefully managed to preserve continuity, comparability, and reliability.
Recognising the need to reflect the changing structure of a dynamic economy, India’s statistical system has undergone significant modernisation. These reforms include updating GDP and price index base years, improving measurement of the informal and services sectors, strengthening labour market statistics, adopting advanced survey techniques and technology, and increasing transparency through broader stakeholder consultation.
Together, these measures aim to improve the accuracy, timeliness, and credibility of India’s official statistics, thereby supporting stronger evidence-based policymaking.
53. What is the ‘base year’ in the context of National Accounts Statistics?
A. The reference year whose prices are used to calculate real GDP growth
B. The year in which GDP was highest
C. The first year of economic reforms
D. The year in which inflation was lowest
Answer: A
54. Which organisation prepares quarterly GDP estimates in India?
A. Reserve Bank of India
B. Finance Commission
C. National Statistical Office (NSO)
D. NITI Aayog
Answer: C
55. The National Statistical Office (NSO) functions under which Ministry?
A. Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
B. Ministry of Corporate Affairs
C. Ministry of Finance
D. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Answer: A
56. Which method is used in India for preparing quarterly GDP estimates?
A. Input-Output Method
B. Benchmark-Indicator Method
C. Fiscal Estimation Method
D. Comparative Growth Method
Answer: B
57. The Benchmark-Indicator method followed in India is aligned with which of the following?
A. WTO Trade Framework
B. World Bank Fiscal Code
C. UN Human Development Report
D. SNA 2008 and IMF’s Quarterly National Accounts Manual, 2017
Answer: D
58. High-frequency indicators used for estimating quarterly GDP include:
A. Decennial census data only
B. Monthly and quarterly data
C. Five-year economic surveys only
D. Annual tax returns only
Answer: B
XII. The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) are modelled on the Irish Constitution and assign the government the primary responsibility of promoting the welfare of the people while balancing the interests of different sections of society. These principles are contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India.
The main objective of the DPSPs is to establish India as a welfare state. Their purpose is not merely to ensure political democracy, but also to promote social and economic democracy. They provide fundamental guidelines and directions to the government for framing laws and implementing policies aimed at the welfare and well-being of citizens.
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar observed that these constitutional principles would help shape a new social order and define the character of the state. Article 37 of the Constitution declares that the DPSPs are fundamental in the governance of the country, and it is the duty of the State to apply them while making laws.
However, DPSPs are non-justiciable in nature, meaning they cannot be enforced by courts of law. Nevertheless, they remain essential guiding principles for governance and public policy in India.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from Prajakta P. Babar, India’s Roadmap: Understanding Directive Principles of State Policy, International Journal of Research Publication and Reviews, Vol. 5, Issue 4 (April 2024]
59. The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution are primarily modelled on the Constitution of:
A. USA
B. Canada
C. Ireland
D. Australia
Answer: C
60. The Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in which Part of the Indian Constitution?
A. Part IV
B. Part V
c. Part II
D. Part III
Answer: A
61. The primary objective of the Directive Principles of State Policy is to establish India as a:
A. Police State
B. Welfare State
C. Socialist Republic
D. Parliamentary State
Answer: B
62. The term ‘non-justiciable’ in relation to DPSPs means:
A. They can be enforced only by Parliament
B. They are temporary provisions
C. They cannot be enforced by courts
D. They apply only to the judiciary
Answer: C
63. The DPSPs are addressed to:
A. The State
B. Only State Legislatures
C. Only Parliament
D. Only the President
Answer: A
64. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. DPSPs are enforceable through writ petitions
B. DPSPs are part of the Constitution
C. DPSPs guide governance
D. DPSPs promote welfare objectives
Answer: A
XIII. Article 14 is one of the constituents of the golden thread that wraps around the Constitution. It is necessary to understand its importance in its true majesty. It is not a declaration of formal uniformity, simpliciter; it is instead a profound assertion of the rule of law itself. It only stands to reason that amongst other things, exercise of State power must also answer to fairness, justice and reason. This evolution from formal equality to an embodiment of the rule of law shows the development and maturing of Indian constitutional thought. In the early articulation, the aim and object of the Courts was to preserve legislative flexibility while preventing arbitrary discrimination and to do that there came to be evolved the twin test of reasonable nexus and intelligible differentia.
[Extract from the Supreme Court Judgement State of West Bengal & Anr. v. Confederation of State Government Employees, West Bengal & Ors., SLP(C) Nos. 22628-22630 of 2022]
65. Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees:
A. Freedom of speech
B. Equality before law and equal protection of laws
C. Right against exploitation
D. Freedom of religion
Answer: B
66. Article 14 is often described as part of the Constitution’s:
A. Golden thread
B. Basic structure only
C. Emergency provisions
D. Directive framework
Answer: A
67. Article 14 is not merely a declaration of formal uniformity, but an assertion of:
A. Parliamentary supremacy
B. Judicial review
C. Rule of law
D. Federalism
Answer: C
68. Which of the following would violate Article 14?
A. Reasonable classification based on objective criteria
B. Arbitrary discrimination without rational basis
C. Differential treatment with clear justification
D. Welfare legislation for weaker sections
Answer: B
69. The evolution of Article 14 reflects the development of Indian constitutional thought from:
A. Formal equality to rule of law
B. Judicial supremacy to executive dominance
C. Federalism to unitary governance
D. Liberty to emergency powers
Answer: A
70. The exercise of State power under Article 14 must satisfy:
A. Popular approval only
B. Administrative convenience only
C. Fairness, justice, and reason
D. Political necessity only
Answer: C
XIV. Dr. Chikwe Ihekweazu, Executive Director, World Health Organization (WHO) Health Emergencies Programme, said that a quarter of a billion people were living through humanitarian crises that stripped away the most basic protections: safety, shelter and access to health care. In these settings, health needs were surging, whether due to injuries, disease outbreaks, malnutrition or untreated chronic diseases. Yet, access to care was shrinking. Today, he said, WHO was appealing for USD one billion to sustain essential health services across the world’s most severe emergencies in 2026. This money would support the health response in 36 emergencies, including Gaza and the Middle East, Sudan, Ukraine, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Haiti, and Myanmar. WHO was deeply worried about the vast needs and how to meet them. Already, 2025 had been an exceptionally difficult year: global funding cuts had forced 6,700 health facilities in 22 humanitarian settings to either close or reduce services, cutting 53 million people off from health care.
[Extracted from the United Nations Office at Geneva (UNOG) Newsroom, UN Geneva Press Briefing, 03 February 2026]
71. Which of the following basic protections are stripped away in humanitarian crises, according to the passage?
A. Education, employment, and transport
B. Safety, shelter, and access to health care
C. Food, internet, and legal aid
D. Housing, voting rights, and banking services
Answer: B
72. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a cause of rising health needs in humanitarian settings?
A. Injuries
B. Disease outbreaks
C. Malnutrition
D. Climate migration
Answer: D
73. WHO has appealed for how much funding to sustain essential health services in 2026?
A. USD 500 million
B. USD 750 million
C. USD 1 billion
D. USD 2 billion
Answer: C
74. Which of the following regions/countries is specifically mentioned in the passage?
A. Afghanistan
B. Syria
C. Gaza
D. Yemen
Answer: C
75. The phrase “access to care was shrinking” implies:
A. Hospitals were becoming physically smaller
B. Fewer people could obtain healthcare services
C. Doctors were migrating abroad
D. Healthcare costs were decreasing
Answer: B
XV. India has unveiled PRAHAAR, its first comprehensive national counter-terrorism policy, marking a significant shift from a fragmented framework of laws, executive actions, and ad hoc institutional responses to a more coherent strategic doctrine. The policy emerges in response to an increasingly complex security environment shaped by state-sponsored cross-border terrorism, hybrid warfare, encrypted digital communications, drone-enabled logistics, and the growing nexus between organised crime and extremist violence.
With PRAHAAR, India has taken an important step towards bringing strategic coherence to an increasingly volatile security landscape, where state and non-state actors often operate in tandem, conventional and unconventional methods are seamlessly combined, and digital platforms are exploited to radicalise, recruit, and mobilise youth at unprecedented speed and scale.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from Kaush Arha, PRAHAAR: India’s New Counter-Terror Policy in a Hybrid Threat Era, ORF]
76. The primary significance of PRAHAAR lies in the fact that it:
A. Replaces all existing criminal laws
B. Focuses only on border security
C. Brings coherence to previously fragmented counter-terrorism measures
D. Deals only with digital crimes
Answer: C
77. PRAHAAR, recently unveiled by India, is best described as:
A. India’s first comprehensive national counter-terrorism policy
B. A defence procurement policy
C. A cyber security policy for government institutions
D. A foreign policy doctrine
Answer: A
78. The policy PRAHAAR has been introduced against the backdrop of:
A. Agricultural reforms
B. Cross-border terrorism and extremist violence
C. International trade disputes
D. Climate migration
Answer: B
79. The word “doctrinal consolidation” in the passage most nearly means:
A. Abandonment of old policies
B. Collection of unrelated measures
C. Systematic integration into a unified strategy
D. Temporary executive action
Answer: C
80. Which technological factor is specifically mentioned as a modern security threat?
A. Encrypted digital communications
B. Quantum computing
C. Satellite television
D. Renewable energy systems
Answer: A
SECTION IV
XVI.During a legal aptitude workshop, students were asked to perform a word transformation exercise using the word JUDICIAL. The instructor explained that such activities sharpen reasoning, sequencing, and analytical skills, which are essential for law entrance examinations.
First, the students had to take the first four letters of the word and reverse their order, while keeping the remaining letters unchanged. Next, they were instructed to identify the third letter from the end of the original word and place it at the beginning of the newly formed arrangement. Finally, they had to add the letters “LY” at the end of the transformed word.
The instructor emphasized that each instruction had to be followed strictly in the given order, as changing the sequence would lead to a different answer. Students who carefully applied the steps realised how important precision and logical sequencing are in solving reasoning-based questions.
81. Which letter is placed at the beginning in the second step?
A. A
B. L
C. C
D. I
Answer: D
82. If the first four letters were arranged alphabetically instead of reversing them, what would be the first four letters?
A. DIJU
B. DIJU
C. IJDU
D. UJID
Answer: A
83. Which step directly increases the number of letters in the transformed word?
A. Reversing first four letters
B. Moving third letter from the end
C. Adding “LY”
D. None
Answer: C
84. If the original word had 10 letters and the same process was followed, how many letters would the final word contain after adding “LY”?
A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 13
Answer: C
85. If the first instruction was to reverse the first five letters instead of four, what would the new arrangement after the first step be?
A. ICIDUJAL
B. CIDUJIAL
C. IDUJCIAL
D. ICJUDIAL
Answer: C
86. Which of the following best describes the nature of this exercise?
A. Mathematical computation
B. Sequential logical reasoning
C. Legal principle application
D. Vocabulary test
Answer: B
87. Assertion (A): The third letter from the end of the word “JUDICIAL” is I.
Reason (R): Counting from the end, the letters are L, A, I.
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true, but R is false
D. A is false, but R is true
Answer: A
88. How many consonants are present in the original word “JUDICIAL”?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: B
XVII. On the evening of March 18, a rare manuscript titled The Marlowe Letters disappeared from the archival chamber of the National Library. The chamber was protected by biometric authentication and a digital keypad lock. System records revealed that the chamber door was unlocked at 9:42 PM using the correct four-digit PIN and locked again at 9:58 PM. Since the library officially closed at 9:30 PM, only authorised personnel were permitted inside thereafter.
Three employees had access to the archives that evening: Dev, the senior archivist; Esha, a research assistant; and Farhan, the maintenance supervisor.
Dev stated that he had left the premises at around 9:20 PM after filing his daily report. CCTV footage confirmed that he exited the main gate at 9:23 PM, though the parking-area camera was not operational that night.
Esha claimed she remained in the reading hall until 10:10 PM, updating catalogue records. Two students independently confirmed seeing her there between 9:35 PM and 9:55 PM.
Farhan stated that he was repairing an air-conditioning unit on the third floor from 9:15 PM to 10:00 PM. However, electronic access logs showed that his swipe card was used to enter the archive corridor at 9:40 PM.
Investigators later recovered a torn page from the missing manuscript in a dustbin near the staff lounge. Dev had previously opposed displaying the manuscript publicly, claiming it posed preservation risks. Farhan had recently expressed frustration over unpaid overtime. Esha had applied for an international academic scholarship that required prior access to the manuscript.
The library director clarified that the archive PIN had been changed two days earlier, and only Dev and Esha had officially received the new code.
89. If the director’s statement is true, which inference is strongest?
A. Farhan could not have entered the archive unless he obtained the PIN from someone else.
B. Dev must be guilty.
C. Esha definitely stole the manuscript.
D. The director is unreliable.
Answer: A
90. Which person appears to have the strongest confirmed alibi during the relevant period?
A. Dev
B. Esha
C. Farhan
D. None
Answer: B
91. The CCTV evidence regarding Dev primarily establishes that:
A. Dev could not have committed the theft.
B. Dev left through the main gate at 9:23 PM.
C. Dev had no motive.
D. Dev was outside the city.
Answer: B
92. Which of the following creates the greatest uncertainty in concluding Dev’s innocence?
A. The broken parking-area camera
B. His opposition to public display of the manuscript
C. His job title
D. The library’s closing time
Answer: A
93. Which principle best applies to this passage?
A. Correlation equals causation
B. Suspicion is not proof
C. Majority opinion determines guilt
D. Motive is conclusive evidence
Answer: B
94. Which statement is most logically valid?
A. Motive alone proves guilt.
B. Opportunity alone proves guilt.
C. Contradictions in statements may justify suspicion but not definite guilt.
D. Anyone with archive access must be guilty.
Answer: C
XVIII. In a lively school hostel, students created a secret code to describe relationships in a fun way. They decided that A # B would mean A is the sister of B, A @ B would mean A is the father of B, A % B would mean A is the wife of B, and A & B would mean A is the son of B. The students enjoyed testing each other with these coded relationships. One day, Meera wrote on the notice board: P @ Q # R, which meant P is the father of Q, and Q is the sister of R. Therefore, P was also the father of R. Later, Arjun added another puzzle: X % Y @ Z & K, meaning X is the wife of Y, Y is the father of Z, and Z is the son of K. The students debated possible relationships between X and Z, eventually concluding that X could be the mother of Z. Their hostel warden laughed and said this secret code was making everyone sharper in reasoning. Soon, solving coded family relations became the most exciting evening activity in the hostel.
95. What does the symbol # represent?
A. Brother of
B. Daughter of
C. Mother of
D. Sister of
Answer: D
96. In the expression P @ Q # R, what is P’s relation to R?
A. Brother
B. Father
C. Uncle
D. Grandfather
Answer: B
97. What does the symbol % represent?
A. Wife of
B. Mother of
C. Daughter of
D. Sister of
Answer: A
98. In X % Y @ Z, how is X related to Z?
A. Aunt
B. Sister
C. Mother
D. Daughter
Answer: C
99. What does the symbol & represent?
A. Son of
B. Father of
C. Brother of
D. Husband of
Answer: A
100. If M # N @ O, how is M related to O?
A. Aunt
B. Sister
C. Mother
D. Daughter
Answer: D
XIX. A renowned art museum planned to display five rare artefacts—Painting, Sculpture, Coin, Manuscript, and Vase—across five display rooms numbered 1 to 5, with one artefact in each room.
To maintain thematic balance, the curator imposed certain conditions. The Manuscript had to be displayed in a room after the Coin. The Sculpture could not be placed in Room 1 or Room 5 because of space limitations. The Vase had to be placed immediately next to the Painting. The Coin could not be placed immediately next to the Manuscript. Room 1 could not contain the Vase.
Museum interns were asked to determine the correct arrangement of the artefacts. The exercise became an engaging test of logical reasoning, as each clue had to be carefully analysed to arrive at the correct placement.
101. Which two artefacts must always be adjacent?
A. Coin and Manuscript
B. Manuscript and Vase
C. Sculpture and Coin
D.Vase and Painting
Answer: D
102. Which artefact cannot be placed in Room 1?
A. Coin
B. Sculpture
C. Manuscript
D. Painting
Answer: B
103. If Painting is in Room 3, Vase must be in:
A. Room 2 or 4
B. Room 1 only
C. Room 5 only
D. Room 2 only
Answer: A
104. Which of the following can be a valid arrangement?
A. Coin, Sculpture, Painting, Vase, Manuscript
B. Painting, Vase, Sculpture, Coin, Manuscript
C. Coin, Painting, Vase, Sculpture, Manuscript
D. Vase, Painting, Coin, Sculpture, Manuscript
Answer: C
105. Sculpture can be placed in:
A. Room 1 only
B. Room 2, 3, or 4
C. Room 5 only
D. Any room
Answer: B
106. Which statement is false?
A. Manuscript comes after Coin
B. Coin and Manuscript cannot be adjacent
C. Vase must be next to Painting
D. Sculpture can be in Room 5
Answer: D
107. If Coin is in Room 2, Manuscript can be in:
A. Room 3
B. Room 4
C. Room 1
D. Room 2
Answer: B
108. Which arrangement is impossible?
A. Vase in Room 1
B. Sculpture in Room 4
C. Coin in Room 1
D. Manuscript in Room 5
Answer: A
XX. In 2025, global internet penetration rose to 74 percent, up from 71 percent in 2024, bringing the total number of internet users worldwide to approximately 6 billion, compared to 5.8 billion the previous year. This rapid digital expansion has played a major role in the growth of the online education sector. Greater access to high-speed internet and widespread smartphone adoption have made online learning more accessible to people across diverse regions. Mobile learning applications enable students to study anytime and from virtually any location, offering flexibility and convenience. The rollout of 4G and 5G networks has further enhanced the quality of online education by supporting smoother streaming for live classes, video lectures, and interactive sessions. At the same time, governments and institutions continue to strengthen digital infrastructure to widen internet access. With around 7.4 billion smartphones currently in use, accounting for nearly 87 percent of all mobile phone connections worldwide, smartphones remain a key driver of digital learning adoption.
109. According to the passage, what percentage of the world’s population accessed the internet in 2025?
A. 71%
B. 72%
C. 74%
D. 76%
Answer: C
110. What was the approximate number of internet users worldwide in 2024?
A. 5 billion
B. 5.8 billion
C. 6 billion
D. 7.4 billion
Answer: B
111. The introduction of 4G and 5G internet has improved online education by:
A. Improving streaming quality for live and interactive learning
B. Reducing the cost of smartphones
C. Eliminating the need for teachers
D. Replacing traditional education completely
Answer: A
112. According to the passage, smartphones account for what percentage of all mobile phone connections worldwide?
A. 74%
B. 80%
C. 87%
D. 92%
Answer: C
113. Mobile learning platforms primarily offer students:
A. Only classroom-based education
B. Access to printed books only
C. Limited access to learning materials
D. Flexibility to learn anytime and anywhere
Answer: D
114. If internet access continues to expand, the online education market is likely to:
A. Decline significantly
B. Remain unaffected
C. Continue growing
D. Be replaced by traditional methods only
Answer: C
XXI. Data from the Petroleum Planning and Analysis Cell (PPAC) shows a wide gap between domestic production and consumption. In the first half of FY 2025–26, India produced 6,219 thousand metric tonnes (TMT) of LPG, while consumption stood at 16,200 TMT. Imports filled the gap at 10,731 TMT, translating into an import dependency of around 62%.
Over the long term, LPG imports have surged dramatically. From just 1,722 TMT in 1998–99, imports have risen to over 20,667 TMT in 2024–25, a nearly 12-fold increase. LPG now accounts for around 40% of India’s total petroleum product imports, up from just 7.2% in the late 1990s.
This rise has been driven by growing demand for cleaner cooking fuel, supported by government schemes and increasing household adoption.
115. According to the passage, India’s LPG import dependency in the first half of FY 2025–26 was approximately:
A. 62%
B. 40%
C. 72%
D. 50%
Answer: A
116. What was India’s LPG consumption in the first half of FY 2025–26?
A. 10,731 TMT
B. 6,219 TMT
C. 16,200 TMT
D. 20,667 TMT
Answer: C
117. LPG currently accounts for approximately what percentage of India’s total petroleum product imports?
A. 20%
B. 30%
C. 50%
D. 40%
Answer: D
118. Which organisation’s data is cited in the passage?
A. Reserve Bank of India
B. NITI Aayog
C. Petroleum Planning and Analysis Cell
D. Ministry of External Affairs
Answer: C
119. Which government initiative is indirectly referred to as contributing to LPG demand?
A. Smart Cities Mission
B. PM Ujjwala Yojana
C. Make in India
D. Startup India
Answer: B
120. LPG imports in 2024–25 were approximately how many times higher than in 1998–99?
A. 12 times
B. 10 times
C. 8 times
D. 15 times
Answer: 12