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GUJARAT JUDICIAL SERVICE EXAMINATION – 2022 | PRELIMS PAPER
Total Marks:100
Time Allowed: 2 hours
1) _________________ was the first computer.
A) Abacus
B) Napier’s Bones
C) IBM6000
D) Param8000
2) 5th generation of computers is called the age of _______________
A) Desktops
B) Microsoft
C) UNIV AC
D) Artificial Intelligence
3) CTRL+C is used for _____________
A) Creating text
B) Copying text
C) Editing text
D) Pasting text
4) India bought its first computer in the year ________________
A) 1950
B) 1966
C) 1956
D) 1959
5) There are how many most common classifications of operating systems?
A) 4
B) 6
C) 5
D) 9
6) Which option enables us to see and check a page before printing?
A) Review
B) Field
C) Print preview
D) None of these options
7) Booting is a ____________ sequence.
A) secondary
B) startup
C) auxiliary
D) ending
8) U/s. 29 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, there shall lie an appeal to the Court of Session within ______________ days from the date on which the order made by the Magistrate is served on the aggrieved person or the respondent, as the case may be, whichever is later.
A) 30
B) 60
C) 90
D) 120
9) The Court may at any stage of the proceedings, order that the name of any party improperly joined, whether as plaintiff or defendant, be struck out. Where do you find this provision in the C. P. Code, 1908?
A) Order I Rule 8(2)
B) Order I Rule 9
C) Order I Rule 10(2)
D) Order I Rule 12(2)
10) The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is __________________
A) an arbitrary law
B) a substantive law
C) an adjective law
D) None of these options
11) The Court may at any stage of the proceedings order to be struck out or amended any matter in any pleading ______________
A) which may be vexatitous
B) which may tend to delay the fair trial of the suit
C) which is otherwise an abuse of the process of the Court
D) All of these options
12) An appeal against an order under rule 1, rule 2 of Order XXXIX of the C. P. Code, 1908 shall lie under which of these Orders of the said Code?
A) Order XLI
B) Order XLII
C) Order XLIII
D) Order XLIV
A) Section 34
B) Section 36
C) Section 46
D) Section 150
A) Order X
B) Order XI
C) Order XII
D) Order XIII
A) Order XXI Rule 54
B) Order XXI Rule 55
C) Order XXI Rule 58
D) Order XXI Rule 59
A) shall direct a second summons to be issued and served on the defendant in larger interest of justice
B) may make an order that the suit shall be heard ex parte
C) shall postpone the hearing of the suit to a future day to be fixed by the Court and shall direct notice of such day to be given to the defendant
D) None of these options
17) For the purposes of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, every Court of Small Causes is subordinate to the ____________
A) District Court only
B) High Court only
C) High Court and District Court
D) None of these options
18) In suits by or against a corporation, any pleading may be signed and verified on behalf of the corporation by ____________who is able to depose to the facts of the case.
A) the secretary
B) any director of the company
C) other principal officer of the corporation
D) Any one of these persons mentioned in corporation options A to C
19) Secondary evidence may be given of the existence, condition or contents of a document ____________
A) when the original is of such a nature as not to be easily movable
B) when the original has been destroyed or lost
C) when the original is shown or appears to be in the possession or power of any person legally bound to produce it
D) All of these options
20) ‘A man is in possession of stolen goods soon after the theft’ – Choose the correct presumption from the options given which the Court may presume.
A) That he is an innocent person
B) That he must be knowing the thief
C) That he is either a thief or has received the goods knowing them to be stolen
D) None of these options
21) Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, when a person is bound to prove the existence of any fact, it is said that _______
A) the burden of proof lies on that person
B) he has to discharge his burden in rebuttal
C) Both the options A & B
D) None of these options
22) Under Section 143 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, leading questions may be asked in ____________
A) examination in chief
B) re-examination
C) cross-examination
D) None of these options
23) Law of evidence is ____________
A) lex fori
B) lex posterior
C) lex specialis degogate legigenerali
D) None of these options
24) Except as otherwise provided by Chapter II of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, the specific performance of a contract may be obtained by _________________
A) a reversioner in possession, where the agreement is a covenant entered into with his predecessor in title and the reversioner is entitled to the benefit of such covenant
B) any party thereto
C) where the contract is of a settlement on marriage, any person beneficially entitled thereunder
D) All of these options
25) No suit u/s 6(2)(a) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 shall be brought after the expiry of ___________months from the date of dispossession
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) six
26) Dispute arising out of which of these agreements given would mean ‘Commercial dispute’?
A) joint venture agreements
B) technology development agreements
C) distribution and licensing agreements
D) All of these options
27) Chapter IIIA – ‘Pre-institution Mediation And Settlement’ in the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 was inserted in the year _______________
A) 2018
B) 2017
C) 2016
D) 2015
28) An offence punishable under the Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986 shall be ___________
A) non-bailable and cognizable
B) non-bailable and non-cognizable
C) bailable and cognizable
D) None of these options
29) The punishment for causing death by negligence u/s 304A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is ____________
A) imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to five years, or with fine, or with both
B) imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both
C) imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both
D) imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, or with fine, or with both
30) Indian Penal Code was drafted by ____________
A) Lord William Bentik
B) Lord Delhousie
C) Thomas Babington Macaulay
D) Dr. Ambedkar
31) Whoever wages war against the Government of India, or attempts to wage such war, or abets the waging of such war, shall be punished with ____________
A) imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to five years, or with fine, or with both
B) imprisonment for life and shall also be liable to fine
C) death, or imprisonment for life shall also be liable to fine
D) imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years and shall also be liable to fine.
32) ____________________ is designated as ‘grievous hurt’ under the Indian Penal Code, 1860.
A) Any hurt which endangers life
B) Any hurt which causes the sufferer to be during the space of twenty days in severe bodily pain
C) Permanent disfiguration of the head or face
D) All of these options
33) ____________ is an offence against the Public Tranquillity.
A) Bribery
B) Affray
C) Fabricating false evidence
D) Obstruction to lawful apprehension
34) In which of these cases were the Transgender people recognised as a Third gender?
A) Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India
B) Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab
C) Sarla Mudgal, President, Kalyani v. Union of India
D) National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India
35) Any person may obtain an extract from the register of births and deaths relating to any birth or death under ______ of the Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969?
A) Section 12
B) Section 17
C) Section 19
D) Section 20
36) Promises which form the consideration or part of the consideration for each other, are called _____________
A) reciprocal promises
B) acceptance
C) voidable contracts
D) None of these options
37) _________________ means and includes causing, however innocently, a party to an agreement, to make a mistake as to the substance of a thing which is the subject of the agreement
A) fraud
B) undue influence
C) coercion
D) misrepresentation
38) The bailment of goods as security for payment of a debt or performance of a promise is called ________________
A) hypothecation
B) Pledge
C) guarantee
D) collateral security
39) 25 persons are in a room. 15 of them play hockey, 17 of them play football and 10 of them play both hockey and football. Then the number of persons playing neither hockey nor football is
A) 2
B) 17
C) 13
D) 3
40) Seven machines take 7 minutes to make 7 identical toys. At the same time rate how many minutes would it take for 100 machines to make 100 toys?
A) 1
B) 7
C) 100
D) 700
41) Ten friends planned to share equally the cost of buying a gift for their teacher. When two of them decided not to contribute, each of the other friends had to pay Rs.150 more. The cost of the gift was Rs. _________________
A) 666
B) 3000
C) 12000
D) 6000
42) ‘A’ bought a certain quantity of bananas at a total cost of Rs.1500. He sold 1/3 of these bananas at 25% loss. If he earns an overall profit of 10%, at what percentage profit did ‘A’ sell the rest of the bananas?
A) 25.00%
B) 27.00%
C) 27.50%
D) 25.75%
43) Rahul, Murali, Srinivas and Arul are seated around a square table. Rahul is sitting to the left of Murali, and Srinivas is sitting to the right of Arul. Which of the following pairs are seated opposite each other?
A) Rahul and Murali
B) Srinivas and Arul
C) Srinivas and Murali
D) Srinivas and Rahul
44) Under the Information Technology Act, 2000, whoever commits or conspires to commit cyber terrorism shall be punished with ________________
A) imprisonment, which may extend to imprisonment for ten years
B) imprisonment, which may extend to imprisonment for life
C) imprisonment, which may extend to imprisonment for seven years
D) imprisonment which may extend to imprisonment for five years
45) ____________ means any facility from where access to the internet is offered by any person in the ordinary course of business to the members of the public.
A) Data provider
B) Cyber cafe
C) Wifi
D) Bluetooth
46) Choose the appropriate word from the options given to complete the following sentence: “One of his biggest ____________ was his ability to forgive.”
A) Vice
B) Virtues
C) Choices
D) Strength
47) The grammatical categories of ‘Strength, strengthen’ are __________.
A) Noun, Verb
B) Verb, Noun
C) Adjective, Verb
D) Adjective, Noun
48) A sheaf is of _______________.
A) Train
B) Aeroplane
C) Buses
D) Arrows
49) The synonym of the word ‘APEX’ is _____________
A) peak
B) underground
C) qualified
D) greedy
50) The antonym of the word ‘Malign’ is ___________
A) praise
B) support
C) criticise
D) slender
51) Select the most appropriate word that can replace the highlighted word without changing the meaning of the sentence: ‘Now-a- days, most children have a tendency to belittle the legitimate concern of their parents’.
A) disparage
B) begrudge
C) reduce
D) applaud
52) Choose the correct idiom, from the options given, for: “loose one’s temper”
A ) Flesh and blood
B) In cold blood
C) Knock out
D) Fly off the handle
53) Choose the correct word for the expression: “a room or the display of works of art.
A) artery
B) artillery
C) gallery
D) library
54) Which of the options given, best completes the given sentence· ‘She will feel much better if she ___________’
A) will get some rest
B) gets some rest
B) will be getting some rest
D) is getting some rest
55) Any person aggrieved by an order made by the Committee or the Board under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 may, within 30 days from the date of such order, prefer an appeal to the ____________
A) Wakf Board
B) Children’s Court
C) Metropolitan Magistrate
D) High Court
56) Under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, ‘heinous offences’ includes the offences for which the minimum punishment under the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860) or any other law for the time being in force is _____________________
A) imprisonment for five years or more
B) imprisonment for seven years or more
C) Capital punishment or imprisonment for life
D) imprisonment for ten years or more
57) The provisions regarding ‘bail to a person who is apparently a child alleged to be in conflict with law’ is found in which of these sections of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015?
A) Section 12
B) Section 11
C) Section 10
D.) Section 9
58) Which of these Acts define the expression ‘penetrative sexual assault’?
A) Indian Penal Code, 1860
B) The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012
C) The Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956
D) The Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986
59) U/ s. 35 of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 the Special Court shall complete the trial, as far as possible, within a period of ____________ from the date of taking cognizance of the offence.
A) one year
B) two years
C) six months
D) three years
60) Under Section 216 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, any court may alter or add to any charge at any time ___________
A) before the witnesses are examined
B) before the arguments are concluded
C) before the judgment is pronounced
D) None of these options
61) Proceedings u/s. 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 may be taken against any person in any district ________
A) where he or his wife resides
B) where he last resided with his wife
C) where he is
D) All of these options
62) _____________ is the main legislation on procedure for administration of substantive Criminal law in India.
A) Indian Evidence Act, 1872
B) Indian Penal Code, 1860
C) The Bombay Police Act, 1951
D) The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
63) In which of these cases did the Hon’ble Supreme Court held that ____________________ Section 198(2) Cr.P.C which contains procedure for prosecution under Chapter XX of the Indian Penal Code shall be unconstitutional to the extent that it is applicable to the offence of adultery u/ s. 497 I.P.C.?
A) Baba Saheb Maruti Kamble v. State of Maharashtra
B) Joseph Shine v. Union of India
C) K. M. Nanavati v. State of Bombay
D) Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration
64) The provisions regarding ‘Recruitment of persons other than district judges to the judicial service’ is found in which of these Articles of the Constitution of India?
A) Article 233
B) Article 233A
C) Article 234
D) Article 237
65) Part III of the Constitution of India guarantees ________________.
A) Citizenship
B) Directive Principles of State Policy
C) Fundamental Rights
D) Fundamental Duties
66) The words ‘unity and integrity of the Nation’ were substituted for the words ‘unity of the Nation’ by the ____________
A) Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976
B) Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956
C) Constitution (Thirty-fifth Amendment) Act, 1974
D) Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act, 2005
67) In which of these cases has the Hon’ble Supreme Court of India held that ‘Timely delivery of justice is part of human rights. Denial of speedy justice is a threat to public confidence in the administration of justice’?
A) K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of India
B) Hussain v. Union of India
C) Dipak Shubashchandra Mehta v. Central Bureau of Investigation
D) Ravinder Singh v. State of Himachal Pradesh
68) What is the proper court-fee to be paid on a Vakalatnama when presented for the conduct of any one case to a District Court or Court of Session?
A) Rs.2/-
B) Rs.3/-
C) Rs.5/-
D) Rs.10/-
69) Give the meaning of “Nemo Debet Esse Judex In Sua Propria Causa”
A) No man can be judge in his own case
B) A man shall not be vexed twice for one and the same cause
C) No one can be punished twice for the same crime or offence
D) No one is to be punished for the crime or wrong of another
70) Audi Alteram Partem means _____________
A) alternate parties to the proceedings
B) no one shall be condemned unheard
C) state of affairs in accordance with law
D) None of these options
71) ‘Minor’ under the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956 means ______________
A) a person who has not completed the age of eighteen years
B) a person who has completed the age of sixteen years but has not completed the age of eighteen years
C) a person who has completed the age of sixteen years
D) a person who has completed the age of twelve years but has not completed the age of eighteen years
72) _________________ means an instrument made in relation to a Will, and explaining, altering or adding to its dispositions, and shall be deemed to form part of the Will.
A) Corrigendum
B) Addendum
C) Codicil
D) Deed of amendment
73) The Sale of Goods is a ______________ law.
A) Administrative
B) Adjective
C) Mercantile
D) None of these options
74) Under Section 2(4) of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, “document of title to goods” includes _______________
A) warehouse keeper’s certificate
B) railway receipt
C) bill of lading
D) All of these options
75) An application for setting aside arbitral award may not be made after __________ months have elapsed from the date on which the party making that application had received the arbitral award or, if a request had been made u/ s. 33, from the date on which that request had been disposed of by the arbitral tribunal.
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
76) The provisions regarding ‘Interim measures ordered by arbitral tribunal are found in which of these sections of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996’?
A) Section 16
B) Section 17
C) Section 18
D) Section 34
77) _____________ was the Political Guru of Gandhiji.
A) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
B) Mahadev Desai
C) Karam Chand Gandhi
D) John Ruskin
78) _______________ founded the Theosophical Society in India and started the Home Rule League.
A) Bipin Chandra Pal
B) Sarojini Naidu
C) Annie Besant
D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
79) Which one of the given options is classified as one of the inner planets?
A) Mars
B) Saturn
C) Jupiter
D) Uranus
80) The national tree of India is ________________
A) The Mango Tree
B) The Palm Tree
C) The Banyan Tree
D) The Nilgiri Tree
81) The largest Country of world (area-wise) is ________________
A) China
B) Russia
C) Canada
D) USA
82) __________________ is the classical dance of Tamil Nadu.
A) Kathakali
B) Bharatnatyam
C) Kuchipudi
D) Mohiniattam
83) India has _____________ languages which have been given the official language status.
A) 22
B) 23
C) 24
D) 25
84) The sport organization FIDE is associated with the game of __________________
A) Football
B) Table Tennis
C) Chess
D) Badminton
85) The study of _______________ is called Selenology.
A) Sun
B) Neptune
C) Mercury
D) Moon
86) The location of the famous tourist spot ‘Laxman Jhula’ is _______________
A) Delhi
B) Chhatarpur (Madhya Pradesh)
C) Rishikesh (Uttarakhand)
D) None of these options
87) The Richter scale was invented by an American seismologist named Charles Richter to quantify the magnitude or strength of ______________
A) tides
B) an earthquake
C) volcano
D) tornado
88) The period of limitation for filing a suit to cancel or set aside an instrument or decree or for the rescission of a contract is _______________
A) Three years
B) One year
C) Twelve years
D) Thirty years
89) The period of limitation for preferring an appeal, under the Code of Civil Procedure, to a High Court from any decree or order is ____________
A) 120 days
B) 90 days
C) 60 days
D) 30 days
90) Under section 2(a) of the Limitation Act, 1963, “applicant” includes _____________
A) any person whose estate is represented by the applicant as executor, administrator or other representative
B) any person from or through whom an applicant derives his right to apply
C) a petitioner
D) All of these options
91) The period of limitation for preferring an application to record an adjustment or satisfaction of a decree is 30 days. The time from which period begins to run is ___________
A) When the payment or adjustment is made
B) When the payment or adjustment is refused
C) When an appeal is preferred against the decree
D) None of these options
92) ______________ is a transfer of ownership in exchange for a price paid or promised or partpaid and part-promised.
A) Mortgage
B) License
C) Sale
D) Lease
93) U/s.122 of the Transfer of Property Act, if the donee dies before the acceptance of the gift, such a gift is ___________
A) void
B) voidable
C) valid
D) None of these options
94) The person committing an offence u/ s. 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act,1881 shall be punished with ___________
A) imprisonment for two years with fine to twice the amount of cheque
B) imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine which may extend to twice the amount of the cheque
C) imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine which may extend to twice the amount of the cheque, or with both
D) imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, and with fine which may extend to twice the amount
of the cheque
95) In which of these cases did the Hon’ble Supreme Court observed thus ‘The consequences scuttling the criminal process at a pre-hi stage can be grave and irreparable. Quashing proceedings at preliminary stages will result in finality without the parties having had opportunity to adduce evidence and the consequence then is that the proper forum i.e. the trial Court is ousted from weighing the material evidence. If this is allowed, the accused be given an un-merited advantage in the criminal process ____________ ‘?
A) Akhilesh Prasad v. Jharkhand Public Service Commission and Others
B) Ratish Babu Unnikrishnan v. State (Govt. of NCT of Delhi) and Another
C) Shraddha Gupta v. State of Uttar Pradesh and Others
D) Ram Chander v. State of Chhattisgarh Pradesh and Others
96) Court shall take cognizance of any offence punishable u/ s. 138 of N. I. Act, 1881 upon complaint made within _____________ of the date on which the cause of action arises under clause (a) of the proviso to section 138.
A) six months
B) three months
C) two months
D) one month
97) Every offence under the Pre-conception and Pre-natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, 1994 shall be ____________
A) cognizable, non-bailable and non-compoundable
B) cognizable, bailable and compoundable
C) non-cognizable, non-bailable and compoundable
D) non-cognizable, bailable and non-compoundable
98) The provisions regarding ‘Effect of non-registration’ are found in which of these sections of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932?
A) Section 69
B) Section 59
C) Section 68
D) None of these options
99) Under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, “business” includes __________________
A) every trade
B) profession
C) occupation
D) All of these options
100) Under the Gujarat Prohibition Act, 1949, “liquor” includes ______________
A) spirits
B) wine
C) toddy
D) All of these options
Answer Keys
1. A
2.D
3. B
4. C
5. C
6. C
7. B
8. A
9. C
10. C
11. D
12. C
13. C
14. B
15. C
16. B
17. C
18. D
19. D
20. C
21. A
22. C
23. A
24. D
25. D
26. D
27. A
28. C
29. B
30. C
31. C
32. D
33. B
34. D
35. B
36. A
37. D
38. B
39. D
40. B
41. D
42. C
43. C
44. B
45. B
46. B
47. A
48. D
49. A
50. A
51. A
52. D
53. C
54. B
55. B
56. B
57. A
58. B
59. A
60. C
61. D
62. D
63. B
64. C
65. C
66. A
67. B
68. B
69. A
70. B
71. B
72. C
73. C
74. D
75. C
76. B
77. A
78. C
79. A
80. C
81. B
82. B
83. A
84. C
85. D
86. C
87. B
88. A
89. B
90. D
91. A
92. C
93. A
94. C
95. B
96. D
97. A
98. A
99. D
100. D